pls give genuine ans 4 dis ques.if it can,den where will b d poles of a magnet?
2006-10-03 05:09:06 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Well, it depends upon the metal and you can always use electricity. But as for the poles, I don't know. Sorry!
2006-10-03 05:11:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes definitely, all objects in all shapes (but not in all sizes maybe, my logic tells me that size has an effect.) can be magnetized as long as they are mettallic in property, but it's better to test it on easily magnetizable objects like iron, or best, use those naturally occuring magnets like i think, the metal manganese, zinc and cobalt.
the tendency will always be to have two opposite poles always and in equal area, specially in a sphere, there's always the rule of equilibrium or balance, the opposite poles must always share the same amount of magnetic surface, space or portion of the object, so in a perfect sphere, the division of the two poles will always lie at the center of the spere mathematically or the division is the circumference of the sphere.
breaking the object will always create two poles.
the more difficult question must be if the object is irregular in shape, how would the two poles divide their magnetic force in the object?
it's also best if you experiment so as to prove.
good day!
2006-10-03 05:33:45 · answer #2 · answered by tone 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Providing that the metal is capable of being magnetized, yes.
When you magnetize a sphere, you decide on where the poles are.
If you magnetize a disk, you can magnetize it across the faces so that one face is N the other S. You can also magnetize it across a diameter of the disc. The choice is yours, it depends on which direction you apply the magnetizing field.
2006-10-03 05:22:16 · answer #3 · answered by Stewart H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a million. the steel sphere could be earthed to make beneficial that it is independent 2. while the negatively fees balloon is delivered nearer to the sphere, the factor of the sphere close to the balloon could have beneficial fees and the different factor of the sphere a ways from the balloon could have detrimental fees because of value redistribution. 3.i dont comprehend this step completely. yet while the a ways end of the sphere is earthed ( negatively charged ) , detrimental fees will bypass from the sphere into the earth. ( earth can the two take up or produce electrons) so the sphere will now be certainly charged. 4. now the sphere now certainly charged 4.a million positve 4.2 now the balloon will charm to the sphere cos unlike fees charm to.
2016-12-26 08:20:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since you can buy magnetic spheres all over the place, obviously the answer is 'yes'. (http://www.engconcepts.net/List_Of_Sphere_Magnets.asp )
Their poles are just like the Earth's poles- North and South, running through one axis.
2006-10-03 05:13:39 · answer #5 · answered by Madkins007 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it can be. If the ball is heated to a very high temperatue, all the molecules will be free. Then it is magnetised and cooled down so that the molecules stay in their new places. So, the poles will be on the opposite sides on its diameter just like our earth.
2006-10-03 05:25:38 · answer #6 · answered by cosmoboyin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi. Yes. The poles would be just like on Earth, opposite sides. Try this link: http://www.engconcepts.net/List_Of_Sphere_Magnets.asp
2006-10-03 05:13:32 · answer #7 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Madkins007 has answer the questions
2006-10-03 05:24:33 · answer #8 · answered by morroniac 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it can, just put it in a coil.
2006-10-03 05:20:07 · answer #9 · answered by ag_iitkgp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋