assuming 'a' as 1 and 'b' as 2, prove 1=2?

2 ⤊

2006-10-03 04:31:14 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

Uhhhh... 1 does not equal 2, so no, you can't prove 1=2.

2006-10-03 04:38:44 · answer #1 · answered by IT Pro 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋

a+b=1+2
(1)+(2)=1+2
3=3

2006-10-03 11:40:46 · answer #2 · answered by fusionman 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋

let a=b
a^2+a^2=a^2+ab
2a^2-2ab=a^2+ab-2ab
2a^2-2ab=a^2-ab
2*(a^2-ab)=1*(a^2-ab)
cancel (a^2-ab)
=> 2=1
q.e.d

2006-10-03 11:46:31 · answer #3 · answered by rwbblb46 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋

are u sure the q. is right. do u have more data?

2006-10-03 11:37:55 · answer #4 · answered by tut_einstein 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋