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please assume the person is over 18, and has not made a will.

2006-10-02 23:42:43 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships Other - Family & Relationships

11 answers

y? r u planning on killing one of ur roomates or something?

2006-10-02 23:45:04 · answer #1 · answered by A.B. Dobe 2 · 0 0

Assuming that all have an equal share in the house, his (or her) next of kin would get a quarter share in the house. If the house also had a mortgage, then the next of kin would get a quarter share on the paid principle or a quarter of the profits after paying off the mortgage on the sale of the house.

2006-10-02 23:46:59 · answer #2 · answered by Huey from Ohio 4 · 0 0

The other 3 would own it. People put family members on the deed everyday to avoid probate. Its the easiest way to pass the house onto offspring.

2006-10-02 23:46:10 · answer #3 · answered by farahwonderland2005 5 · 0 0

Get a laywer - you'll need one in the end anyway.

Much of this may be determined by the laws of your state. If this was truly a formal asset of the party who died (you are all on the paperwork), it may belong to their estate and someone may have the option to buy it. Otherwise, who knows, their cat loving third cousin may be moving in.

2006-10-02 23:46:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Good question for an attorney!

2006-10-02 23:44:59 · answer #5 · answered by backinbowl 6 · 0 0

probably the three remaining owners would

2006-10-02 23:44:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

go see a lawyer

2006-10-02 23:46:53 · answer #7 · answered by dmncprkr 5 · 0 0

his share goes to his inheritors

2006-10-02 23:45:22 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

their next of kin would get it

2006-10-02 23:44:16 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

you do

2006-10-02 23:45:02 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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