I read that the part of the brain responsible for primitive sex drive -i.e. the part that makes men stare at boobs or butts - usually only reacts to either male or female attributes but not both.
So when a man is bisexual only the fascination for one sex is backed up by primitive instincts and the other has other reasons. Is that true?
2006-10-02 20:59:06 · 18 answers · asked by Voice of Insanity 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
The sex researcher Alfred Kinsey defined a scale of 0-7 where 0=physically incapable of responding sexually to the same sex and 7=the same with regards to the opposite sex. His findings were that these extremes are a very rare, with almost all people falling within the 1-6 range. 1-2 are the majority of people who consider themselves straight, 5-6 are those who consider themselves gay, 3-4 are the bis, a 5 or 6 might have occasional heterosexual encounters, but their primary focus would be gay. It's ignoring the 1-6s and insisting that 0 and 7 are the only possible options that cause so much negativity towards people who acknowledge that they have more range than that.
I have no idea where you read that part about brain response, I'd understood those nerves to part of the spinal column, but I would like to know the methodology used in the research. As a bisexual I only know that, for me at least, qualities I find attractive can occur in either gender, and the response is in no way intellectual, the fascination is definitely primitive and physical. More than that, if sexual attraction isn't physical and primitive, then what IS? What could the "other reasons" of which you speak possibly be?
2006-10-02 21:40:13 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It could well be true, but at the same time a bit misleading. The main 'problem' with defining sexuality is just that - defining it. We like to use labels such as 'gay', 'straight' or 'bi' because it makes us feel more secure to give sexuality a definition and by default it means we 'know where we stand' because of our assumptions about 'branches' of sexuality. The truth of the matter is whatever label we chose to wear all our relationships are governed by some form of attraction. Where we take those attractions is completely up to the individual based on what they feel comfortable with. Bi-sexuality is really a step towards being more honest with yourself admitting that you have attractions towards both sexes. It is when you get into a serious relationship and believe in monogamy that people question bi-sexuality. The fact of the matter is that you still have 'attractions' to both sexes, what you do about those attractions is purely your choice based on what you believe and how you believe relationships should develop. Therefore what I take to be the main point of your question could have some validity, but in itself isn't an answer to the question.
2006-10-03 04:19:54 · answer #2 · answered by waggy 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
umm... the part of the brain that deals with attratction and sexual excitement are not discriminatory, it does not differentiate which gender is there, the simple fact is - if you look at something that excites you, then you'll get turned on, and as far as is a bisexual man primarily gay or primarily straight in his bisexuality, I think it is rare that someone is right in the middle, but I think that bisexual people do favor one gender over the other
2006-10-03 05:20:43 · answer #3 · answered by Danielle 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Well to me bisexual people are on a scale, they fall between a 50 percent men, and 50 percent women, wherever that lands they will usually go for the most.
Example: Tom loves checking out guys and wants to have sex with a man, and he's married. He has no sexual desire for his wife anymore but still loves her. So this means his scale is on 80% men and 20% women.
2006-10-04 05:57:13 · answer #4 · answered by Brandon 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No.
I find about 1 in 30 women attractive (most are far too skinny), and 1 in 50 men.
Furthermore, the sexuality of my body cannot keep up with the sex-drive of my mind.
Neither of those is 'primary' enough to be called 'primarily'.
2006-10-03 04:04:20 · answer #5 · answered by raxivar 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes. They are either Gay or Straight there is no in between. Bisexuality was the gay/Straight men/womens way to be excepted somehow by both groups. Its a false idea. Its a bead they hide behind in todays society. Its as if because people know they like both at least there a little bit straight still. God forbid they were looked upon as Soley Gay, at least this way they are a little straight!
2006-10-03 08:28:32 · answer #6 · answered by david s 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Not sure about the whole "brain" issue, being "primarily" (ok, totally) gay, I would only venture a guess that one probably turns him on more than the other.
2006-10-03 04:01:23 · answer #7 · answered by pocket68rocket 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, if bi is most of the middle-ground, then doesn't probability favor one or the other since the 50/50 midpoint is just that, a point in the middle?
2006-10-03 04:24:18 · answer #8 · answered by Ren Hoek 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Just as a rough "guesstimate", I would say that 99.9% of men who are "bi-sexual" are primarily/actually gay. This is NOT a judgment of them, just an observation about reality.
2006-10-03 04:03:45 · answer #9 · answered by backinbowl 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Some say they have the best of both worlds. Others say they just cannot decide. I say, they are just like you and me, with different personalities and preferences.
2006-10-03 06:00:25 · answer #10 · answered by Esthon 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋