In Missouri if a married woman has children with a man that isn't her husband the children are still considered his until a paternity test is done. Even if the child has the other man's last name and his name is on the birth certificate.
I was wondering if it would be the same way if the husband had children with another woman. (I know that one should be obvious, but if so then why doesn't that work both ways?)
Seriously, if both the husband and wife claim the child isn't his why is he still legally responsible for it?
2006-10-02 14:49:06 · 4 answers · asked by Sassy Mom 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Other - Family & Relationships
The OLD laws wasn't ready for the 21st century lol They assumed people were from back in Bible days "pure" and honest lol not true now a day is it... in foreign countries they still arrange marriages and women are still Virgins at marriage... and they think WE are strange for having kids b4 marriage i guess we look barbaric in their eyes huah?
2006-10-02 14:57:57 · answer #1 · answered by ~Niecee~ âË» âË» ♂ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most likely because he married the wife. He is taking on the responsibilities of a father, therefore, the courts will look at it as though, he was willing to do it while they were married, then he should be willing to do it if they get a divorce. I know that this sounds crazy, but sometimes, that is just the way it is. Laws are very strange. Do you know that there is a law that states that in the United States, it is illegal to eat corn flakes on Sunday? I'm not kidding, this law is for real. If there is one that stupid, then questioning any other is a lost cause. Good luck!
2006-10-02 21:57:21 · answer #2 · answered by blackwidow 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The court gets a lot of liars, therefore, they require proof positive.
2006-10-02 21:54:36 · answer #3 · answered by honiebyrd 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is just the way the law is written and it is that way in many states....I believe it is to protect the child...
2006-10-02 21:54:37 · answer #4 · answered by Barbiq 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋