2006-10-02 12:17:08 · 6 answers · asked by kman 1 in Health ➔ Men's Health
1/4 of a mouthful!
2006-10-02 16:46:46 · answer #1 · answered by kellettgal 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends, if he hasn't ejaculated in, say 5 or more days, it's going to be quite a bit... probably a tablespoon, maybe more. but if he is sexually active (as in he has sex 3 or 4 times a week) or if he masturbates a lot, it's going to be less. And if it's several times in one day, there might not be anything at all, or maybe a drop or two. It's about how much time you give the male body to produce more semen. I'd say it takes a day or so to make one orgasm's worth (on a sexually active male).
2006-10-02 19:36:16 · answer #2 · answered by youarenotrede 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the average amount of semen produced during an orgasm would be 2 teaspoons or 1 tablespoon. (2 teaspoons equals 1 tablespoon).
2006-10-02 20:44:59 · answer #3 · answered by ally 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have read that it produces 2 teaspoons. Many men obviously do more or less though.
2006-10-02 20:19:50 · answer #4 · answered by Cub6265 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
about a tablespoon in quantity. with 500 million sperm.
2006-10-02 20:25:01 · answer #5 · answered by Geo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
About a tablespoon.....What do you need, a quart??
2006-10-02 19:30:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋