English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

the blinds are 100/200. Player A raises from 200 to 550. Player B calls, and player C goes all in for 600. Does this constitute a raise, and can player A now reraise to drive out player B? I've seen it two different ways online, and heard it differently from different people.

2006-10-02 06:44:33 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Games & Recreation Card Games

4 answers

He can't re-raise if this is limit hold'em but all can call the 50 more that the all-in put in. If this is no-limit he can re-raise.

2006-10-02 15:33:08 · answer #1 · answered by Kitty L 3 · 0 0

If Player C goes allin for 600, player A can reraise to whatever
amount he likes beyond 600 including the entire stack. If Player
B calls for 550, then Player C is reraising from 550 to 600. The
other players have to match to see a flop, assuming they have C
covered. Since Player C has reraised the pot to 600 allin, Player A has the option of calling, folding, raising or reraising. Player B
has those options as well, but must wait in turn to see what happens. In other words, Player B can't act until Player A decides
what to do. You have to tell us which version of Holdem are we
talking about? Fixed-Limit, Pot-Limit, or No-Limit Texas Holdem?

2006-10-02 07:42:26 · answer #2 · answered by Answerer17 6 · 0 0

Player A and B can only call at this point. Exception: if a Player D raises to 900 (another 350 above the 550) or more the betting can continue.

2006-10-02 06:56:13 · answer #3 · answered by Underwonder 2 · 0 0

this does not constitute a raise..it is less than half the original raise... the a bettor cannot raise himself..

2006-10-02 07:22:21 · answer #4 · answered by jeff_levine13 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers