in the state of california
2006-10-01 11:22:49 · 8 answers · asked by CoRis84 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
California is a community property state so unless you had a prenuptial agreement she is entitled to half. But if she doesn't push the issue in court you should be o.k.. If you had most of your assets before you married her you might want to hire the best lawyer around because even if your lawyer can prove that you had most of your assets before you met her, if your married longer than two years she can always say that she's become accustomed to the life you have provided which could warrant alimony payments.
2006-10-01 11:39:20 · answer #1 · answered by ♥♪ TrickNice ♪♥ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if there is a court ordered alimony to be paid. BUT, that can be a two way street. A woman could be ordered to pay the man alimony, depending on the situation and circumstances!
2006-10-01 18:25:45 · answer #2 · answered by Hammer 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends. If she/they were married a long time, and she was the housewife, never had a job, yadayada, then probably, particularly if she has a sharp attorney. If the marriage was short, neither of them have big salaries and both working, then probably not.
2006-10-01 18:40:05 · answer #3 · answered by April 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no way to know for sure about someone else's divorce settlement, but, yes, this can be ordered by the court.
2006-10-01 18:30:28 · answer #4 · answered by PeggyS 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Called alimony, however if the girl makes more money she may be paying him
2006-10-01 18:27:18 · answer #5 · answered by g49joeybethl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, if he makes more money than her and she files for alimony.
2006-10-01 18:25:17 · answer #6 · answered by Dana 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's all according to "How your attorney presents it to the courts."
Presentation is key.
2006-10-01 18:27:22 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if she is awarded spousal support
2006-10-01 18:26:10 · answer #8 · answered by Arthur W 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋