2006-10-01 05:45:40 · 4 answers · asked by MegN 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Ferromagnetism is actually due to the collective interaction of many iron atoms with it's crystal structure. Alloying disrupts the crystal, leaving some alloys (like 300 series stainless steel) largely nonmagnetic.
2006-10-01 08:08:39 · answer #1 · answered by Dr. R 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Excellent question.
When iron is simply created and cast, its atoms lie in random directions throughout the solid. The individual tiny magnets cancel each other out. But when they are zapped with an electrically or other induced magnetism for some length of time, many of them align themselves with that induced magnetism. This results in the "tiny magnets" being aligned so that their individual effects add up. When that happens, we say the iron is magnetized.
2006-10-01 05:54:16 · answer #2 · answered by oldprof 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because the tiny fields are themselves not coordinated. If the metal is struck sharply in the presence of a strong magnetic field, it will orient the iron atoms and -- ta-da -- you have a permanent magnet.
2006-10-01 05:49:06 · answer #3 · answered by poorcocoboiboi 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hi. Good answers above. Even though cast iron is not in and of itself a magnet, it is magnetic. Also, have you ever hung a string of paperclips together from a magnet? This demonstrates the they can be temporarily magnetized in the presence of a magnet. Magnets fascinate me.
2006-10-01 05:58:56 · answer #4 · answered by Cirric 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋