2006-10-01 04:17:37 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
Oh, yes, it happens all the time. But there's a catch. In order to sue the government, you have to have their permission! No kidding! If you have a claim against the government, you submit it to the relevant agency, and they either pay it or not. But if they do not, and you want to sue, if they do not consent to being sued, you get nowhere, except to appeals court to try to argue that they were not justified in refusing service of the suit. Don't know if anyone has ever won that; the only ones I've heard about, they consented to the suit.
2006-10-01 04:27:56 · answer #1 · answered by auntb93again 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A doctrine adopted in 1776 called "sovereign immunity" said government can't be sued unless it agrees to be sued.
In 1946, the federal government finally did agree to be sued, but only under certain limited circumstances, when Congress passed the Federal Torts Claim Act (FTCA). Congress stipulated, however, that these suits would not involve juries or punitive damages awards
2006-10-01 04:27:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
free the weed
2006-10-01 04:21:33 · answer #3 · answered by eldoradoman1953 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋