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another proof. i've tried everything i can think of, but to no effect. just a hint will be appreciated. thanks in advance

2006-10-01 03:59:40 · 10 answers · asked by brucay 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

10 answers

from your trig identites 1 + tan^2 x = sec^2 x

rearranging gives: sec^2 x - tan^2 x = 1

now sec^2 x - tan^2 x can be wrote like (sec x + tan x)(secx - tanx)

so we can now divide both sides by (secx - tanx)
which gives (secx + tanx) = 1/(secx - tanx)

if you have all your trig identities to begin with in front of you while you do these proofs, it is much easier to get the hang of them.

pick me as your best answer!

2006-10-01 04:08:36 · answer #1 · answered by benabean87 2 · 1 0

You probably know that,
cos^2 x + sin^2 x = 1
divide throughout by cos^2 x, then
1 + tan^2 x = sec^2 x
as sec^2 x = 1/cos^2 x

then sec^2 x - tan^2 x = 1
(sec x -tan x) (sec x + tan x) =1
divide by (sec x - tan x) and you get the desired result.

the main identity here is the Pythagorean theorem of trigonometry.
try,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trigonometric_identity
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pythagorean_trigonometric_identity

2006-10-01 04:24:19 · answer #2 · answered by yasiru89 6 · 0 0

sin^2 x + cos^2 x =1
then cos^2 x = 1 - sin^2 x = ( 1 - sin x )( 1 + sin x)
Divide both sides by cos x ( 1 - sin x ) and get
cos x / (1 - sin x ) = (1 + sin x )/ cos x = (1/cos x ) + (sin x / cos x)
= sec x + tan x
Divide the numerator and denominator of the left side both by cos x
(cos x/cos x)/ ((1 - sin x)/cos x) = 1/ ((1/cos x) - (sin x/cos x))
= 1/ (sec x - tan x)

2006-10-01 04:12:58 · answer #3 · answered by wild_turkey_willie 5 · 0 0

sec x = 1/cosX
tan x = sinx / cosx

You can rewrite your equation as:
1/cox + sinx/cosx = 1/(1/cosx - sinx/cosx)
That simplifies to
(1+sinx)/cosx = 1/((1-sinx)/cosx)

Now get the reciprocal of the denominator of the last term and multiply:
(1+sinx)/cosx = 1 * (cosx/(1-sinx))
(1+sinx)/cosx = cosx/(1-sinx)

Cross multiply
cosx(1+sinx) = cosx(1-sinx)

Divide both sides by cosx

1+sinx = 1-sinx.

Wait, that's wrong I think, sorry. I might have made a mistake somewhere??

2006-10-01 04:11:53 · answer #4 · answered by Manan T 3 · 0 0

Left hand side
1/cosx+sinx/cosx
1=sinx/cosx
both up and down side multiply with (1-sinx)
1-sin^2 x/cosx(1-sinx)

cos^2 x/cosx(1-sinx)

cosx/(1-sinx)

both up and down side divide by cos X

1/Secx-tanX

*this is kind of okay question boss.u shld've tried.

2006-10-01 04:26:25 · answer #5 · answered by Nethushanka 1 · 0 0

There is definitely a "tan" in the answer. Good Luck! :)

2006-10-01 04:01:21 · answer #6 · answered by tysavage2001 6 · 0 0

sec x is 1:cos x, so "sec x + tan x = 1 / (sec x - tan x)" is the same as
"1/cos x + sin x /cos x =1/(1/cos x -sin x /cos x )"
And with basic transformations:
(1+sin x):cos x=1:((1-sin x):cos x)
(1+sin x):cos x=cos x:(1-sin x)
(1+sin x)(1-sin x)=cos x*cos x
1-sin x*sin x=cos x*cos x
1=sin x*sin x+cos x*cos x
...
And that is true

2006-10-01 04:13:00 · answer #7 · answered by maja 2 · 0 0

s*2-t*2=1
1/t*2-t*2=1
1-t*4=t*2
if t*2=p
p*2+p-1=0

2006-10-01 04:09:23 · answer #8 · answered by deepak57 7 · 0 0

sec^2x-tan^2x=1
1/cos^2x - sin^2x =1
REJOINED THEIR DENOMINATOR
1-sin^2x/cos^2=1
cos^2x/cos^2x=1 [1-sin^2x=cos^2x]
henced proved

2006-10-01 04:20:51 · answer #9 · answered by ayeshaashraf4u 2 · 0 0

UMMM, YEAH, IM NOT THAT SMART. GOOD LUCK!

2006-10-01 04:01:44 · answer #10 · answered by dover_luv 3 · 0 2

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