The 1st term on the LHS is a fixed multiple of RHS so do not disturb the 1st term
now convert the second term (1-cos x)/sin x to (1+cos x) in denominator.
how do we do it
multiply by (1+cos x)/(1+cos x)
now numerator = (1-cos x)(1+cos x) = 1- cos ^2 x = sin^2 x
denominator = sin x(1+cos x)
so value = sin x/(1+cos x)
now LHS = sin x/(1+cos x) + sin x/(1+cos x) = 2 sin x /(1+cos x)
= rhs
simple is it not ?
2006-10-01 02:56:50
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answer #1
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answered by Mein Hoon Na 7
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Get the LCM,
i.e.
(sin x) / (1+cos x) + (1-cos x) / (sin x) =
[sin^2 x +1 - cos^2 x] / (sin x).(1+cos x) =
(1-cos 2x)/[(sin x).(1+cos x)]
because cos^2 x - sin^2 x = cos 2x,
this is then equal to
2sin^2 x / [(sin x).(1+cos x)]
now one sine goes off and you get
2sin x / (1+cos x)
the above is because
cos 2x = 1 - 2sin^2 x => 2sin^2 x = 1-cos 2x , as had appeared on the numerator.
QED then, hope this helps!
2006-10-01 04:14:56
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answer #2
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answered by yasiru89 6
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First, put in parentheses in your denominator. Now put everything over a common denominator. In the top of the first term you will have sin^2 x and in the top of the second you will have (1-cos x)(1+cos x)=1-cos^2 x=sin^2 x. Now add and cancel a sin x.
2006-10-01 02:49:04
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answer #3
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answered by mathematician 7
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sin x/(1+cos x)+(1-cos x)/sin x = 2 sin x/(1+cos x)
let us prove the right hand side of the identity so we will transform the left hand side...
sin x/(1+cos x)+(1-cos x)/sin x
take the LCD which is sin x(1+cos x)...
[sin^2 x + (1-cos^2 x)]/sin x(1+cos x)
Since 1-cos^2 x is equal to sin^2 x from the identity sin^2 x+cos^2 x=1 then...
(sin^2 x + sin^2 x)/ sinx(1+cos x)
Add like terms sin^2 x...
2 sin^2 x/ sin x(1+cos x)
Simplifying the expression since sin^2 x/sin x=sin x
2 sin x/(1+cos x)
therefore we have proved that the left hand side expression is equal to the right hand expression...
cheers
2006-10-01 02:55:53
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Start by multiplying both sides by (1+cos(x)). Then subtract sin(x) from both sides. Multiply both sides by sin(x) and you'll have 1-cos²(x) = sin²(x) and therefore
1 = sin²(x) + cos²(x) which you should have had as one of your very first trig identities.
Doug
2006-10-01 02:40:24
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answer #5
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answered by doug_donaghue 7
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sinx/(1+cosx) + (1-cosx)/sinx =
Multiplying the second term by (1+cosx)/(1+cosx), we get
sinx/(1+cosx)+
(1-cosx)(1+cosx)/(1+cosx)sinx=
sinx/((1+cosx)+
(1-cos^2x)/(1+cosx)sinx
But
sin^2x+cos^2x=1 (A known identity in trigonometry), and
sin^2x=1-cos^2x
Substituting sin^2x for (1-cos^2x) in the above expression, we get
sinx/(1+cosx)
+sin^2x /(1+cosx)/sinx=
sinx/(1+cosx) +sinx/(1+cosx)=
2sinx/(1+cosx).
The key in solving the problem is in knowing that
sin^2x+cos^2x=1, and therefore
sin^2x=1-cos^2x.
This should help you in solving similar problems later.
2006-10-01 03:52:53
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answer #6
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answered by tul b 3
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cos(2x)=cos(x)*cos(x) - sin(x)*sin(x) cos(2x)=cos(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 + sin(x)^2 = a million cos(x)^2 = a million - sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 = a million - sin(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 = a million - (2*sin(x)^2 )
2016-10-15 09:51:50
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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good one math_kp
*salute*
math_kp solves it nice and easyy
2006-10-01 03:04:44
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answer #8
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answered by 123456 1
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