English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

i've looked at this question for half an hour, and still have no idea how to answer it. just a clue on what to do would be appreciated.
thanks

2006-10-01 02:34:33 · 8 answers · asked by brucay 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

The 1st term on the LHS is a fixed multiple of RHS so do not disturb the 1st term

now convert the second term (1-cos x)/sin x to (1+cos x) in denominator.

how do we do it
multiply by (1+cos x)/(1+cos x)
now numerator = (1-cos x)(1+cos x) = 1- cos ^2 x = sin^2 x
denominator = sin x(1+cos x)
so value = sin x/(1+cos x)
now LHS = sin x/(1+cos x) + sin x/(1+cos x) = 2 sin x /(1+cos x)
= rhs
simple is it not ?

2006-10-01 02:56:50 · answer #1 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0 0

Get the LCM,
i.e.
(sin x) / (1+cos x) + (1-cos x) / (sin x) =
[sin^2 x +1 - cos^2 x] / (sin x).(1+cos x) =
(1-cos 2x)/[(sin x).(1+cos x)]

because cos^2 x - sin^2 x = cos 2x,
this is then equal to
2sin^2 x / [(sin x).(1+cos x)]
now one sine goes off and you get
2sin x / (1+cos x)

the above is because
cos 2x = 1 - 2sin^2 x => 2sin^2 x = 1-cos 2x , as had appeared on the numerator.
QED then, hope this helps!

2006-10-01 04:14:56 · answer #2 · answered by yasiru89 6 · 0 0

First, put in parentheses in your denominator. Now put everything over a common denominator. In the top of the first term you will have sin^2 x and in the top of the second you will have (1-cos x)(1+cos x)=1-cos^2 x=sin^2 x. Now add and cancel a sin x.

2006-10-01 02:49:04 · answer #3 · answered by mathematician 7 · 0 0

sin x/(1+cos x)+(1-cos x)/sin x = 2 sin x/(1+cos x)

let us prove the right hand side of the identity so we will transform the left hand side...

sin x/(1+cos x)+(1-cos x)/sin x

take the LCD which is sin x(1+cos x)...

[sin^2 x + (1-cos^2 x)]/sin x(1+cos x)

Since 1-cos^2 x is equal to sin^2 x from the identity sin^2 x+cos^2 x=1 then...

(sin^2 x + sin^2 x)/ sinx(1+cos x)

Add like terms sin^2 x...

2 sin^2 x/ sin x(1+cos x)

Simplifying the expression since sin^2 x/sin x=sin x

2 sin x/(1+cos x)

therefore we have proved that the left hand side expression is equal to the right hand expression...

cheers

2006-10-01 02:55:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Start by multiplying both sides by (1+cos(x)). Then subtract sin(x) from both sides. Multiply both sides by sin(x) and you'll have 1-cos²(x) = sin²(x) and therefore
1 = sin²(x) + cos²(x) which you should have had as one of your very first trig identities.


Doug

2006-10-01 02:40:24 · answer #5 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

sinx/(1+cosx) + (1-cosx)/sinx =

Multiplying the second term by (1+cosx)/(1+cosx), we get

sinx/(1+cosx)+
(1-cosx)(1+cosx)/(1+cosx)sinx=
sinx/((1+cosx)+
(1-cos^2x)/(1+cosx)sinx

But

sin^2x+cos^2x=1 (A known identity in trigonometry), and
sin^2x=1-cos^2x

Substituting sin^2x for (1-cos^2x) in the above expression, we get

sinx/(1+cosx)
+sin^2x /(1+cosx)/sinx=
sinx/(1+cosx) +sinx/(1+cosx)=
2sinx/(1+cosx).

The key in solving the problem is in knowing that

sin^2x+cos^2x=1, and therefore
sin^2x=1-cos^2x.

This should help you in solving similar problems later.

2006-10-01 03:52:53 · answer #6 · answered by tul b 3 · 0 0

cos(2x)=cos(x)*cos(x) - sin(x)*sin(x) cos(2x)=cos(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 + sin(x)^2 = a million cos(x)^2 = a million - sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 = a million - sin(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 - sin(x)^2 = a million - (2*sin(x)^2 )

2016-10-15 09:51:50 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

good one math_kp
*salute*

math_kp solves it nice and easyy

2006-10-01 03:04:44 · answer #8 · answered by 123456 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers