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And if so, have we acknowledged that fact sufficiently?

2006-10-01 01:37:44 · 6 answers · asked by Isis 7 in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

It's true we lost the moral high ground after use of the nukes on Japan & firebombing of Dresden, but looking at what we faced in 1945, i probably would've done the same thing. To compare the moral depravity of state sponsored genocide where the death ovens at Aushwitz/Birkenau were topping out at 2,600 per day or 80,000 killed per month and the aerial bombardment of civilians is looking at different scales.

The "Final Solution" was the policy of only one country during the last century, and it wasn't the U.S. My beef is with the multi-national business cartels that allowed it to happen, the top being IG Farben (now BASF, Bayer, among others).

Not only did they finance Adolf, they supplied him with Zyclon B for use in the death camps. The American side of the company was not tried at Nuremburg, although they were just as culpable, go figure.

The fire bombing of Dresden by the 8th Air Force and RAF Bomber Command, caused the destruction of 15 square kms including 14,000 homes, 72 schools, 22 hospitals, 18 churches, etc. with a conservative estimate of around 30,000 civilians killed. At the time, the Germans used it as propaganda to advocate against following the Geneva conventions and to attack people's perception of the Allies claim to absolute moral superiority. The military claimed the railroad center was a military target, which it was, altho it was up and running a week later. Feb 1945 was only 3 months away from May 1945 (end of the Euopean war), the outcome of the war was not in doubt, so why bomb a 'cultural' medieval city of 600,000?

I remember reading that Churchill was getting revenge for the bombing of Coventry, but i can't find the source at this moment. In any case, the firebombing of Dresden and nuclear destruction of Hiroshima and Nagasaki were war crimes, genocide should also include civilian victims of aerial bombardment. Even after saying this, i still don't think the Allies were close to the moral depravity of the Nazis and their wholesale holocaust of the Euopean Jews.

2006-10-01 04:32:21 · answer #1 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0 1

I believe it was revenge for the destruction the Nazis unleashed on England, London in particular. Many great works or art from paintings to great buildings have been destoyed or damaged in time of war. The damage done to the pyramids of Giza is the exception. The outer layer was picked apart like it was a quarry. The arabs in power at the time saw them as the work of a pagan society and of no value what so ever.

Has it been acknowledged sufficiently? What do you want a bill board apology or a full page in the New York times? According to Wikipedia Sixty two million people died in that war. The world can only give thanks that the artwork that survived in Dresden are still here for all to enjoy.

2006-10-01 09:37:25 · answer #2 · answered by ericbryce2 7 · 1 0

The bombing of Dresden was meant to break the will of the people, so they would turn against the Nazi Military.

2006-10-01 08:42:03 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

no it wasnt just revenge it was part of a long term military plan,yes it was overkill but the allies believed that carpet bombing like this would help to shorten the war ,thus saving lives in the long run......and acknowledge what that civilians got killed ,well that happened all over europe as well

2006-10-01 09:18:28 · answer #4 · answered by MITCHELL B 3 · 1 0

Strategic bombing had two objectives, one is to break the will of resistance , the other is to destroy or disable the war industries.

Dresden wasn not revenge but was an overkill. so were all the other cities.

2006-10-01 09:48:04 · answer #5 · answered by SHIH TZU SAYS 6 · 2 0

If you've ever been in Germany, you know Dresden is the most gorgeous German town. the bombing was revenge, and such cruel...

2006-10-01 10:34:34 · answer #6 · answered by word 2 · 0 2

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