2006-09-30 21:58:05 · 13 answers · asked by Pat T 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Thanks everyone for answering! I got the answer somehow just now. The answer is 5/9. The reason is because the chance of getting at least 2 numbers the same is 96/216 or 4/9. So the chance of getting all different numbers is 5/9.
x - same no.
y - diff no.
xxx - 6 times
xxy - 30 times
xyx - 30 times
yxx - 30 times
--------------------
96 chance of getting at least 2 same no.
2006-09-30 22:45:20 · update #1
6*5*4 / (6*6*6) = 5/9
1st dice can be anything; 2nd can be one of 5, 3rd can be one of 4
2006-09-30 22:06:53 · answer #1 · answered by Joe C 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
How many sides on each die?
Assuming 6, the second die has 5/6 chance of not being the same number as the first. If neither of the first two are the same number, the chance the third will be different is 4/6.
5/6 * 4/6 = 20/36 = 5/9
2006-09-30 22:08:21 · answer #2 · answered by Robert B 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There are 3 staggering numbers on a 6 sided die. hence the possibilities of rolling a uncommon decision on a the pink die is 3/6 = a million/2. the possibilities of rolling a a million or a 2 on the blue die is two/6 = a million/3. Now, the possibilities of those 2 subject matters happening at the same time is a million/2 x a million/3 = a million/6. a million in 6 and assume the cube are accepted, ie categorized a million by skill of 6. First, evaluate what number numbers are staggering on a die. There are 3: a million,3,5. So the potential of rolling a uncommon decision will be 3/6 or a million/2. the potential of having a a million or 2 on the blue die is two/6 or a million/3. and the potential of those 2 activities happening concurrently is their product, so it truly is a million/2*a million/3 = a million/6. Odds of the pink die are 3 out of 6 Odds of the blue die are 2 out of 6 which skill there are 6 mixtures of pink and blue factors of the 36 accessible.
2016-11-25 20:08:04 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5/9
1 x 5/6 x 4/6 = 20/36 = 5/9
2006-09-30 22:18:03 · answer #4 · answered by yadayada 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The 1st number can be any thing so probability = 1
second it cannot be same number so probability = 5/6
3rd can be any one except on 1st and 2nd so probability = 4/6
so probability for the case = 1 *5/6* 4/6 = 5/9
2006-09-30 22:11:36 · answer #5 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
120 of 216
2006-09-30 22:44:14 · answer #6 · answered by The Greek Guy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i'll give it a try. 6*6*6=216
there is one chance that they come up with any particular number. but you allow for 6 particular numbers to be disallowed. so 216-6=210. the odds are 210 out of 216 that they will show different numbers.
2006-09-30 22:09:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
each one has 6 sides.
if one is 3, the other has 1 out of 6 chances to be 3.
if both are 3 the other has 1 out of 6 changes to be 3.
6*6 = 36 so if you throw it 36 times 35 times they will be different.
oh and if you want them all to show separate numbers then:
if one is 3 the other has 1 out of 6 chances to be 3.
if one is 3 and other is 4 then the last one has 1 out of 3 chances to be 3 or 4.
if you throw it 9 times, 6 times will be different....
2006-09-30 22:03:07 · answer #8 · answered by Zia 1 · 1⤊ 2⤋
1:216
2006-09-30 22:25:52 · answer #9 · answered by junaidi71 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Hi!
I'm not that sure of my anser,
but i think it's just like
__ x __ x __
where the first dice, die you have 6 numbers to choose from!
and to get the second die to be different, you have 5 numbers to choose from..
now the third have 4 numbers to choose from!
someone please confirm my answer! thanks!
i'm just in d mood of nowhere! haha, i can't confirm it myself!
;))
gudluk
2006-09-30 22:12:13 · answer #10 · answered by 123456 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋