are we trained to "like" some harmonies better than others, or is there really an inherent "good sounding" or "bad sounding" combination?
2006-09-30 20:57:52 · 4 answers · asked by tell me all!!! 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Think it has something to do with constructive and destructive interference.Then again, my oldest sister couldn't carry a tune in a bucket if she tried. :)
2006-09-30 21:02:16 · answer #1 · answered by S.A.M. Gunner 7212 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Which note sound harmonius together is to a large degree cultural; in western music, harmonious notes have an integral relationship:
"Some traditions of music performance, composition, and theory have specific rules of harmony. These rules are often held to be based on a natural properties such as Pythagorean tuning's low whole number ratios ("harmoniousness" being inherent in the ratios either perceptually or in themselves) or harmonics and resonances ("harmoniousness" being inherent in the quality of sound), with the allowable pitches and harmonies gaining their beauty or simplicity from their closeness to those properties."
2006-10-01 04:07:36 · answer #2 · answered by gp4rts 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can help you only this much:
The phenomenon of being 'in tune' and 'out of tune' works on the principle of constructive and destructive interference. When sounds are in tune with each other, they sort of amplify or complement each other, hence the good sounding combination and vice versa. Unfortunately I returned almost all of my physics knowledge to my teacher already.
2006-10-01 04:07:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because a " tone " is composed of more than one freq . Research " nodes " .
2006-10-01 07:06:58 · answer #4 · answered by meballs922 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋