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2006-09-30 09:01:42 · 10 answers · asked by Lleh 6 in Arts & Humanities History

I have been offered the outlawing of privately owned weapons in Nazi Germany as a reason to oppose gun control in the US. But I am wondering how much difference it would have made if guns had not been outlawed.

2006-09-30 09:15:44 · update #1

10 answers

The german people were Hitler's forces so how could they defeat themselves.
Hitler was elected by a democratic process and only abused democracy once he got into power like George W. Bush and I don't see any armed americans rising up against him.

2006-09-30 19:21:25 · answer #1 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 2 0

Concerning some of the answers given here,Hitler was NOT
elected in a democrate election´s process.He was NOT pronounced as chancellor by the german parliament.He was
appointed by an old,senile president.And after having this power,
Hitler abolished all the parties besides the naziparty,the unions
were abolished as well as the students´fraternities.
Private owned guns in Europe was and is illegal,except of
certified hunters,and a few certified bodyguards.The only
chance to get rid of him was a riot,as some officers tried on
july,20,1944.But failed,unfortunately.

2006-10-01 07:42:08 · answer #2 · answered by Fritz 4 · 0 0

Hitler was elected by an undisputable majority. There was never at any time any kind of significant German anti-Nazi "underground."

And the statement "if they had kept their guns" is misleading. Private firearm ownership in most European countries (such as Germany) during the early 20th century was pretty much limited to weapons for hunting and weapons owned by criminals.

(in fact, there is little or no tradition of private gun ownership in western Europe).

2006-09-30 16:12:27 · answer #3 · answered by blueprairie 4 · 1 0

The German people liked Hitler when he came onto their political scene. He was going to undo all the injustices done to the German people after WW I and the Treaty of Versailles (Germany alone was forced to accept responsibility for causing the war and had to pay huge war reparations for all the damage. Germany also had to give up land to France and Poland. The German Army was limited to 100,000 men and was forbidden to have submarines or military aircraft).

2006-09-30 16:46:41 · answer #4 · answered by BethS 6 · 0 0

At the time,Germany was going thru a Depression of it's own due to the overwhelming debt owed to the Allies for war reparations. It's a theory that if the amount owed had been cut in half,Germany would have been able to pay it,the Depression wouldn't have happened in the U.S. and Europe and most of all Hitler wouldn't have had the opportunity to rise to power.

2006-10-01 06:55:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I'm not sure the "German" people wanted to defeat Hitler's forces, since Hitler's forces were GERMAN.

2006-09-30 16:10:58 · answer #6 · answered by Buffy Summers 6 · 1 0

Too many imponderables. You'd have to imagine a different German history and a different German people. Germans are not and were not just Americans who talk funny.

2006-10-01 02:18:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Research the Warsaw ghetto uprising and you will see that a small group of jews was able to get arms, and held out for quite a long time compared to how many people were looking for them.

2006-09-30 16:42:14 · answer #8 · answered by Black Sabbath 6 · 2 0

You seem to be confused... you see, the German people LIKED Hitler.

2006-09-30 16:05:12 · answer #9 · answered by UNITool 6 · 1 0

in all the old footage i see-i see a whole nation out there saluting that guy

2006-09-30 16:10:45 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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