Could someone please explain what that means???
and how is that DIFFERENT from saying "an action is morally wrong IF AND ONLY IF performing it violates god's commandments" ?????
to me, it's the same...but i think that's because i dont understand it too well, but i was wondering.. soo if anyone have ideas, PLEASE LET ME KNOW!!!!!! THANK YOU VERY MUCH!
2006-09-30 06:43:50 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Other - Social Science
It has to be a conscious thought...
2006-10-04 02:26:57 · answer #1 · answered by lovelostboys 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the first means "the spirit of the law" and the second means the "letter of the law."
For example, some people say, "Oh, my God!"
The letter of the law would say this is not a sin because God's name is not God.
The spirit of the law would say this is a sin because we are not showing proper love and respect to God.
With love in Christ.
2006-10-02 00:51:27 · answer #2 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's just clearing up a gray area. it's saying that anything that violates a commandment is morally wrong. it doesn't say that only things that violate commandments are morally wrong.
2006-09-30 13:54:05 · answer #3 · answered by knowitall 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Due to the fact that people can't agree on the existence of God, or once they do, they can't decide on who's got the right one, I have to say that each person determines his own morality. No one lives as every God would be pleased.
2006-09-30 13:48:05 · answer #4 · answered by steelypen 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It means that god's commandments are the highest measure of morality.The second statement means the same.
2006-09-30 14:08:25 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋