2006-09-30 05:24:54 · 3 answers · asked by carterlisa9 2 in Social Science ➔ Economics
see laundering, it's more fun
2006-09-30 05:26:33 · answer #1 · answered by joeiacovino 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably you mean the distribution of personal income. Personal income is more or less equally distributed in different economies. Statisticians measure it by counting the proportion of disposable income (ie, after tax, social insurance contributions and pension deductions, and after handouts such as pensions and unemployment benefits) that is concentrated among the top 10% of households, the next 10% and so on down to the bottom 10%. You could say that if in country A, the top 10% of people have 36% of the disposable income and the bottom 10% have 3% of the income the inequality of distribution is 36/3 = 12. Whereas in country B, the shares are 18% and 6% and then the inequality there is only 3.
2006-10-03 04:51:08 · answer #2 · answered by MBK 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sounds to me like the rhetoric of Labor leaders and Marxists. I think its a distortion of "Distribution of Income." Google that and don't forget that Communism failed, so don't take the "Solidarity" argument too seriously.
2006-09-30 08:59:35 · answer #3 · answered by Understood 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋