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I'm trying to get a first mortgage on my house that I owned previously to being married to my current husband. The title company states that my present husband has to be on the deed. Is this correct? Why can't I leave my name on the deed as it has been for 30 years? Is there a law somewhere that states that I either do or don't have to do this? And why does he have to be on a deed that is pre-marital property?

2006-09-29 17:22:15 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

1 answers

legal. wise it dont . my opion?

2006-09-29 17:53:01 · answer #1 · answered by the_silverfoxx 7 · 0 0

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