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For this problem, assume the box contains 6 white balls, 8 red balls, and 5 blue balls, and that we choose two balls at random from the box.
What is the probability of neither being white given that neither is red?

2006-09-29 15:05:02 · 13 answers · asked by Diggler AKA The Cab Driver 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

13 answers

2 . out of11 ??

2006-09-29 15:09:21 · answer #1 · answered by Tired Old Man 7 · 0 1

If it is given that neither is red, we can just not include the red balls in the calculation.

Yay.

Therefore, if the balls can't be white, then the balls must be blue.

P(2 Blue Balls) = 5/11 * 4/10 because the first ball has a 5 (# of blue balls) out of 11 (# of total balls) chance and the second ball just has 5-1 / 11-1 because there is one less blue ball.

=5*4 / 11*10
=20 / 110
=2/11

The probability that both balls not being white given that neither is red is equal to 2/11, or 22.222%

2006-09-29 15:37:20 · answer #2 · answered by Joe S 2 · 1 0

You are saying that there are 6 white, 8 red, and 5 blue. Added up that is (6+8+5) = 19. Then you said we choose 2 randomly in which neither is white and red meaning you are left with red. You have 5 reds so I would say 5/19 but something tells me I'm wrong.

2006-09-29 15:23:20 · answer #3 · answered by ? 2 · 0 0

Balls 8

2016-12-17 17:54:06 · answer #4 · answered by hausladen 4 · 0 0

since neither is red then forget about them.
neither is white means both are blue. theprobability of the first ball being blue is 5/5+6. now we have 10 balls remaining. the probability of the second being blue is 4/10. so the probability of both being blue is 5/11*4/10 =20/110=2/11. though i still don't know why we must multily the probabilities.

2006-09-30 03:51:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The probability of the first one not being either white or red is 5/19. The probability of the next one not being either white or red is 5/18. So the total probability is (5/19)(5/18) = 25/342.

2006-09-29 15:25:13 · answer #6 · answered by just♪wondering 7 · 0 0

5/11 * 4/10 = 2/11 chance of neither being white

2006-09-29 15:09:52 · answer #7 · answered by BESTestAnSWerRRerrERrrERRerrERrr 2 · 0 0

10 out of 143

P(neither red)
= 1 - P(both red)
= 1 - (8/19)(7/18)
= 143/171

P(neither red and neither white)
= P(both are blue)
= (5/19)(4/18)
= 10/171

thus P(neither white | neither red)
= P(neither red and neither white) / P(neither red)
= (10/171)/(143/171)
= 10/143

2006-09-29 15:29:39 · answer #8 · answered by teddy 2 · 0 0

5/19

2006-09-29 15:12:52 · answer #9 · answered by Lady_Eagle410 3 · 0 0

1 in 342

2006-09-29 15:14:14 · answer #10 · answered by Cynic 2 · 0 0

I come up with 2/11 like BESTestAn... (guess his method was a little easier)

Sample space consists of BB, BW, WB, WW (B=blue, W=white)

P(BB) = 5/19 * 4/18
P(BW) = 5/19 * 6/18
P(WB) = 6/19 * 5/18
P(WW) = 6/19 * 5/18

So overall probability =
P(BB) / (P(BB) + P(BW) + P(WB) + P(WW)) =
P(BB) / (P(BB) + 3*P(BW)) =
(5*4) / (5*4 + 3*6*5) =
2/11

2006-09-29 15:26:11 · answer #11 · answered by Joe C 3 · 0 0

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