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2006-09-29 14:32:27 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
If it's toward white people, then there's an unsaid feeling that it's more acceptable, because some poor person of color is just getting even a little bit.
2006-09-29 14:35:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Crime is crime. I've always thought that "hate-crime" sounded a bit too much like "thought-crime" as in Orwell's 1984.
People who are violent or steal, etc. should be separated from the general society for safety. Consideration should be given to extenuating circumstances such as hunger, and contrition when meting out justice. But to add penalties for "hate" that is a fearsome concept, whether it is racially motivated or whatever.
2006-09-29 21:44:49 · answer #2 · answered by Nick â? 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would guess it's harder to prove. But any racially motivated crime (that's proven as such successfully) is treated the same way with a criminal sentece of some sort.
As with any crime, it depends on the severity and intention.
2006-09-29 21:36:19 · answer #3 · answered by trinitybelwoodspark 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What is usually done about racially motivated violence towards anyone?
2006-09-29 21:34:32 · answer #4 · answered by Samuel Crow 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Surpressed and forgotten doesnt happen much mostly with out any incidedent
2006-09-29 21:35:49 · answer #5 · answered by xmadartisto 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It counts as reparation for slavery. I guess.
2006-09-30 06:19:49 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Is that even against the law?
2006-09-29 21:44:03 · answer #7 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The perpetrators are tried and if convicted, they are incarcerated.
2006-09-29 21:36:35 · answer #8 · answered by imnogeniusbutt 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
g
2006-09-29 21:33:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋