2006-09-29 11:56:13 · 5 answers · asked by Pseudo Obscure 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
See my other question:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AipXrzX6ymhbAXh2HfZhPS_sy6IX?qid=20060929155607AAciVuz
2006-09-29 11:56:54 · update #1
No. For both questions - there is no connection. For example, the allele for blue eyes is recessive, and in north europe it's not rare at all. Some alleles that cause disease are dominant, which means that the common, healthy allele is recessive.
2006-09-29 12:02:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
A dominant allele can be rare. This is the case in numerous lethal dominant disease causing genes. Often, the offspring do not survive to pass on the gene.
In addition you must remember, a recessive allele x can have a frequency of 50% and a dominant allele can have a frequency of 50%. (Theoretically) The entire population could be xX and no one would express the recessive gene.
2006-09-29 12:31:25 · answer #2 · answered by Chris 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the allele.You cannot make a generalization based upon alleles...Genes for certain disorders are recessive and are very rare..but dominant traits can be rare as well...
2006-09-29 13:26:21 · answer #3 · answered by Heather 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the trait the allele is for.
2006-09-29 15:59:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Rare allele can be dominant as well.
2006-09-29 12:04:49 · answer #5 · answered by Brian 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋