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2006-09-29 09:52:27 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Anthropology

12 answers

The English WOMAN, of course! Seriously...your question was pretty vague. If you ask where the English come from in general, there were New stone age inhabitants, who flourished until Celtic invaders arrived, via Ireland, around 580 BCE ("Before the Common Era") . Contrary to popular belief, the ancient Britons were the first "civilized" inhabitants of England, NOT the Celts, who originated in what is now Austria and spread both east and west. They are thought to have been responsible for the construction of Stonehenge, from about 5,000 years ago, ending in 1500 BCE.

The common supposition that the sucessive waves of invasions by other groups occurred throughout Britain's history, wiped out old populations and established new ones is now thought to be false. One study shoed that 80% of the mitochondrial DNA in modern Britons is identical to that of central Europeans, with only 20% matching that of Near-Eastern peoples. This shows that, despite invasion, England has tended to absorb its conquerers rather than be supplanted by them. Good show!

The Romans, led by Julius Caesar, established a force in Britain around 55 BCE (even the infamous Claudius and Caligula tried and failed). Over successive years, Romans formed alliances with some Celtic tribal leaders and took over in 43 BCE. They lived more or less harmoniously w/the Celts, except for some uprisings (most notably that of the Iceni, led by Queen Boudicca in 60-61 BCE, during which the Romans were nearly conquered and expelled) After suppressing this rebellion with great difficulty, they invaded yet more territory, including Scotland.

Oddly, not long after that, the Romans began to leave, more due to the fall of their empire and changing politics than loss of interest in Britain. This is the time period when the stories about King Arthur are said to have occurred, though there is no proof he existed. There are stories of a minor king names "Artos", but they're very sketchy.

The Romans were finally pulled away in 407 CE by the newly apointed Emperor Constatine III and their power ceased in 410 CE. This was followed by more and stronger waves of Angles, Saxons, Jutes and Vikings) occurred during the 5th through 9th Centuries CE. The Romans helped put down one major invasion, but left again. These people contributed much to the origins of every-day English language, though many non-Roman Britons spoke Latin. Finally, the Normans (ancestors of the modern-day French) conquered Britain in 1066). The Normans and Romans are responsible for Latin and French influences in the English language.

Since that time, no other nation has conquered Britain, though part of Britain was actually in France, during the famous reign of Henry II, who inherited much the land from his famous(infamous!) wife, Eleanor of Aquitaine, former wife of The French King Louis. Hitler came pretty close, during the Battle of Britain (part of the Blitzkrieg in WWII).

"The Last Invasion of Britain was a French attack on Britain in 1797. A French force of 1,400 troops in four warships, under the command of American Colonel William Tate landed on 22 February 1797 at Carregwastad Head (or possibly Llanwnda), near Fishguard, Wales." (Wikipedia-"The Last Invasion of Britain"). They were defeated and surrendered at a pub!

The British people are a mix of many different cultures, oddly bound into one, except for those bloody Scots, who hate their stinking guts to this day! lol (source: the film "Trainspotting")

Queen Victoria, who was reigned from 1837 to 1901 presided over a huge empire and established many of the English customs and ideals we see as uniquely "British" to this day, including a parliamentary monarchy...and bathing weekly. Thanks, Vicky! Many British colonies did not become independent until the 20th Century and still bear the influence of British/Victorian tradition.

2006-09-29 13:23:23 · answer #1 · answered by Gwynneth Of Olwen 6 · 0 0

there is no origin, english man is an english man , bit like asking what is the origin of an indian? get me

2006-09-29 10:22:23 · answer #2 · answered by valda54 5 · 0 0

Born of a English mother

2006-09-29 11:17:31 · answer #3 · answered by yellow b 2 · 0 0

Public schools have turned out a unique breed which has come to be known as the "English" man, and which is remarkably analogous to the men of ancient Sparta.

2006-09-29 10:05:34 · answer #4 · answered by Grist 6 · 0 0

He's a jolly old mix-up of ancient Brits, Celts, Germanic tribes, Romans, Normans, Vikings, and who knows what-all.

I am an English mum, but my three sons are Canadian men.

2006-09-29 15:11:45 · answer #5 · answered by The Gadfly 5 · 0 0

England.

2006-09-29 10:13:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Man was born in England, end of story.

2006-09-29 09:54:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the welsh were the original inhabitants of britain. then when other people came, they were forced into the western corner.

2006-09-29 09:59:59 · answer #8 · answered by rumpel 4 · 0 0

The human race as a whole has been traced back to Africa.

2006-09-29 09:59:48 · answer #9 · answered by Answerer 7 · 0 0

Descendents of the neanderthals

2006-09-30 05:08:54 · answer #10 · answered by Cat Commander 3 · 0 0

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