how can half of any value can be greater than the value itself
2006-09-29 05:06:39 · 13 answers · asked by arunjp1989 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
This is true of any negative number.
Here's another way to look at it. Suppose you owe me $1000. I say "I'll cut your debt in half". Now you only owe me $500. Guess what? You have more money now!
You DO like having more money, right?
2006-09-29 05:08:13 · answer #1 · answered by PJ 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
When you take half of a number, you will get another number with a smaller *magnitude* (or "absolute value"). If the dividend is negative, then yes, you can wind up with a number that's greater than your original dividend, but that's just a consequence of working with signed numbers. Comparing the magnitudes of -8 and -4, namely 8 and 4, the result makes sense.
That's an excellent question, though! :)
2006-09-29 05:12:47 · answer #2 · answered by Jay H 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
we know that there is a very big difference between a negative no. and a positive no.
if we take two no's say -1000 & +100 one is +ve & another is -ve . here we do not consider their magnitude . one can easily say that 1000 is greater but if we refer to the -ve sign before it , our assumption totally contradicts.
we know that however greater is the no. but with ve sign is smaller than 0 also.
your question is that -8/2 is obviously -4 but when we go on no. line wecan easily note that -4 is greater than -8.
2006-09-29 17:36:43 · answer #3 · answered by prashant p 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First divide 8 by 2.Then introduce the minus sign.If there is a minus sign both on the top and bottom then the answer will be 4. Since it has only sign the answer is -4
2006-09-29 17:41:28 · answer #4 · answered by Kiran Kumar 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here -8 is greater than -4 because they are really 8 and 4 on the x-axis-merely on the left hand side of the origin(0,0).
2006-09-29 06:33:04 · answer #5 · answered by somenathsengupta 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Two friends jointly gambled and lost 8 $. How much has each lost 4$ each right? This is the physical meaning of
-8/2=-4
2006-09-29 05:24:30 · answer #6 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
-8/2=-4
-8/2*2=-4*2
-16/2=-8
-8/1=-8
-8=-8
language and logic are funny not mathes in real.
i have equilised both sidea by real calculation
2006-09-29 05:19:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
hi buddy,
you can get an explanation by drawing a numberline.
figure this one out:
0/2=0
how can half of a number be that number itself
2006-09-29 07:16:20 · answer #8 · answered by K R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
look at it from this way;
-4 * 2 = -8
2006-09-29 05:15:45 · answer #9 · answered by David 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
suppose you owe someone $100.that will be represented as -$100 as far as you are concerned
you owe $50.it will be concerned as -$50 as far as you are concerned.with a lesser $-50 aren't you better off than a higher -$100
2006-09-29 05:58:05 · answer #10 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋