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During 199 England, was the social division between the upper, middle, and lower class drastic as it was during the Edwardian period?? Like, did parents of the upper class society strongly oppose their daughters marrying middle/lower class gentlemen?? And was the upper class society as suffocating and strict as it was during the Edwardian period??!!!

Ten points for the BEST answer.
Need much details, please!!

2006-09-27 17:22:52 · 2 answers · asked by J.Welkin 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

errr...

in 199, england was a roman province. and i don't think people thought much about that.

you mention regency in the title: are you referring to the regency during george 3rd's insanity crisis (george 4th's regency 1810-1820)? then, yes. by then the aristocracy in britain was established. it was never as distanced from the other classes as the nobility in france was, but the idea of 'good family' and 'blue blood' was active in england's social life.

edwardian period? which one? generally speaking people refer to the period between 1270 and 1377 as the edwardian period because that's when edward 1st, 2nd and the 3rd ruled. but since you mentioned regency, i'm suspecting you're referring to the rule of edward 7th. and i'm suspecting there wasn't much difference from this particular point of view.

2006-09-27 19:49:59 · answer #1 · answered by ilya 4 · 0 1

First of all, what is 199? You mentioned the Regency period so I will assume you mean circa 1810.

I'm going to say no to all three questions. I don't really feel like writing a full essay here so I will just outline some main points for you.

Thesis: The Regency period in England was NOT as socially rigid and divided as the Edwardian period.


1. Loose morals. The regency period was far more permissive and decadent than the Edwardian era. This was partly due to the pathetic example set by the royal family. King George IV was a womanizing, gambling, overweight drunk whose reign was punctuated with scandal, much to the horror of many. His Queen, Caroline, lived in open adulutery with another man in Italy. One of his sisters bore a child out of wedlock. And of course, King George III was insane.

2. Weak family structure. The reign of Queen Victoria (1837-1901) did much to improve "family values" in England. Home life became a cherished institution, with the husband, wife, and children each performing their own special role within the family. Because of this, the Edwardian era was still marked by respect for family connections, whereas the Regency period was characterized by familial dysfuntion and turmoil.

3. The ascendancy of the military classes. The regency period occured during the Napoleanic wars, which in an of itself had an unsettling effect on society. Also, numerous young men with no familial connections came home from the wars with money, and they became ideal candidates to marry the titled, but penniless daughters of the beleagered noble class. (read Jane Austen's 'Persuasion' or rent the movie)

4. Colonialism. The Edwardian period occured during the golden age of England's expanding global empire. England was probably a wealthier society than ever (at least the ruling classes were) so there was less of a need to allow "inferior" blood into their ranks. Also, as the English colonized other continents and came into contact with other races, those experiences may have reinforced their desire to preserve the integrity of their race as well as their family names.

5. Industrial Revolution. The Regency period pre-dates the major thrust of the industrial revolution. People still traveled by coach rather than train. Mass production of food, clothing, and printed goods did not yet exist. Society was still largely rural. By 1910, it had become largely urban, with great masses of people jammed into cities, working low paying factory jobs, and living under deplorable conditions. This contributed to a greater discrepancy between the wealthy and the poor.

Hope this helps!

2006-09-28 02:51:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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