2006-09-27 10:33:06 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The prosecutor would first have to prove the existence of telepathy. They would then have to prove that the defendent possessed this power. That would be a difficult burden of proof.
Cool question...very original
2006-09-27 13:27:51 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably not. Very few jurisdictions recognize the use of psychic or magical powers as a means for causing actual harm. So, it would be a causation problem.
At best, they might be convicted of attempted murder, if they had the proper intent and committed some other action that they subjectively believed might lead to the target's death, even if the law does not recognize that there is an actual causal link.
2006-09-27 17:37:54 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They could be telepathically indicted. In other words, thrown in an asylum.
2006-09-27 17:41:19 · answer #3 · answered by worldneverchanges 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
try giving the marriage counseling one more shot first.
2006-09-27 17:42:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. They would more than likely be committed.
2006-09-27 17:50:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2006-09-27 17:38:51 · answer #6 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋