m = a(0) + 10a(1) + 100a(2) + ... + (10^n)a(n)
where a(0),...a(n) are the digits of the number m
10 ≡ 1 (mod 9)
10^2 ≡ 1 (mod 9)
...etc.,
10^n ≡ 1 (mod 9) for all natural numbers n
{If you don't know the rules of modulo arithmetic,
note that 10^n-1 is always divisible by 9, since 10^n-1 factored is:
(10-1)(10^(n-1) + 10^(n-2) + ... + 10 + 1)
= 9(10^(n-1) + 10^(n-2) + ... + 10 + 1) }
a(0) + 10a(1) + 100a(2) + ... + (10^n)a(n) ≡ a(0) + a(1)*1 + a(2)*1 + ... + a(n)*1 (mod 9)
≡ a(0) + a(1) + ... + a(n) (mod 9)
so if a(0) + a(1) + ... + a(n) ≡ 0 (mod 9) (i.e., sum of digits is divisible by 9)
Then a(0) + 10a(1) + 100a(2) + ... + (10^n)a(n) ≡ 0 (mod 9)
(i.e., the whole number is divisible by 9)
Q.E.D.
p.s. I'll make a deal with you. If you can prove that my proof is "wrong" then I'll send you $10; otherwise, you send me the 10 points.
2006-09-27 09:17:05
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answer #1
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answered by Scott R 6
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well i will give you a helpful hint or 2 :
10^0 mod 9 = 1
10^1 mod 9 = 10 mod 9 = 1
10^2 mod 9 = 100 mod 9 = 1
10^3 mod 9 = 1
...
10^x mod 9 = 1 x an integer >= 0
so a decimal #s representation say for example y= 2376 means we have 2 * 10^3 + 3 * 10^2 + 7 * 10^1 + 6
now take y mod 9 = 2 * 1 + 3 * 1 + 7 * 1 + 6 * 1 mod 9 = 2 + 3 + 7 + 6 mod 9 = 18 mod 9 = 0
now, i leave it to you to formalize the above.
2006-09-27 09:24:23
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answer #2
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answered by xkey 3
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Only thing I would add (to the 1st proof, for example) is that it must be proven that 10^n == 1 mod 9 for all n, even though it seems obvious.
It can be proven by induction. If it's true for 10^m will show it's true for 10^(m+1). It's clearly true for 10^1.
Assume 10^m = 9*j +1 where j is an integer. Then
10^(m+1) =
10*10^m =
10*(9*j+1) =
90*j +10 =
9*(10*j +1) + 1 =
9*k +1 where k = 10*j+1.
QED
2006-09-27 09:40:31
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answer #3
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answered by Joe C 3
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Take for example a two digit number.
It can be written as 10a + b. Now it can also be written as:
9a + a + b.
9a is divisible by 9. a+b is divisible by 9. So the number 100a + b is divisible by 9 if a+b is divisible by 9.
Expand this to a number of 3 digits.
Dr. J.
2006-09-27 09:23:07
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answer #4
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answered by Dr. J. 6
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it is jsut the way it is. If the digits of a variety could be further and divided by utilising 3 calmly, it is divisable by utilising 3, so it works for all exponents of three. 9 = 3^2 If the sum of a numbers digits ought to be calmly divided by utilising 27 or 80 one, they could be divisable by utilising 27 or 80 one respectively.
2016-12-15 15:33:30
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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And divisible by 3 as well!
2006-09-27 09:25:14
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answer #6
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answered by Hootcoot 2
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a0 + a1 + a2 +...+ an = 9*k Where k is an integer and a0 a1 a2 etc are the digits of the number.
If we add 9a1 + 99a2 + 999a3 +...+(10^n - 1)an to the above we get the number itself.
Notice that adding 9a1+99a2+999a3 + ... + (10^n-1) to 9*k results in an integer that is divisible by 9
Therefore the number is also divisible by 9
2006-09-27 09:31:11
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answer #7
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answered by z_o_r_r_o 6
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162 is divisable by 9 because 1+6+2=9 and 162/9=18
2006-09-27 09:17:03
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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