2006-09-26 11:46:24 · 9 answers · asked by blj 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Biologically speaking, there is an area of the brain that relates to the the development of verbal skill and language usage; when compare in men and women, women has it more active and developed than the men (starts earlier for girls).
2006-09-26 15:26:40 · answer #1 · answered by meowmimi1981 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its how they are raised... for example a boy gets a football, toy gun, g.i. joes and such to play with as a child... girls get baby dolls, tea sets and what not... the toys and games for boys are geared towards competition while girls activities are geared more towards bonding like experiences (think playing house) all of this creates a personality more geared for women to communicate commiserate and just plain talk about anything just for the sake of it being a bonding experience whereas men will try to communicate feelings through actions (although maybe not the best method) and will generally only speak in a problem solving, cut corners, get it over and done with sort of manner.
2006-09-26 12:10:13 · answer #2 · answered by Pravus Invictus 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1. Because they are good at it
2. Because for most women talking is an equivalent of "grooming" the other person.
3. Because they believe in talking as a way of resolving problems where men tend to want to "do something about it" before they talk.
2006-09-26 12:07:18 · answer #3 · answered by haggesitze 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Women are naturally more aware of their feelings, and hence express more than men.
2006-09-26 11:54:24 · answer #4 · answered by joju 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
W(h)ooooooooooomen!
Ciao.John-John.
2006-10-04 11:08:15 · answer #5 · answered by John-John 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because men's brain has smaller area allocated for language capacity since most of the space are allocated to process their obsession with sex
2006-09-28 11:27:45 · answer #6 · answered by jingleh4m 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They have more to say. They feel and they speak about it.
2006-09-26 12:12:05 · answer #7 · answered by mkc 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Objection! the question assumes facts not in evidence.
2006-09-28 08:08:27 · answer #8 · answered by hq3 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Thank you very much! I agree.
2006-09-26 12:03:50 · answer #9 · answered by friend 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋