No.
Something like this acutally happened. Babe Ruth (yes, that one) used to pitch for the Red Sox. He walked the first batter and was thrown out of the game for hitting the umpire. The runner was thrown out trying to steal second and the relief pitcher got the next 26 batters. He did not get credit for the perfect game.
2006-09-26 11:16:40
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answer #1
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answered by SPLATT 7
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SPLATT is correct however that was called an unoffical perfect game if memory serves me well... They being a lot of those too.... Here below are some examples of three unoffical perfect games and why they are classify as such:
a-Pedro Martinez Montreal at San Diego NL 0-1, 10 innings June 3, 1995
b-Harvey Haddix Pittsburgh vs. Milwaukee NL 0-1, 13 innings May 26, 1959
c-Ernie Shore Boston vs. Washington AL 4-0 June 23, 1917
c-Entered game after starter Babe Ruth walked Ray Morgan, and following an argument, was ejected by umpire Brick Owens. Morgan was caught stealing and Shore retired the remaining 26 batters.
b-Pitched 12 perfect innings, lost in 13th on an error, sacrifice bunt, walk and double.
a-Pitched 9 perfect innings, allowed leadoff double in 10th and was replaced by Mel Rojas, who finished one-hitter in 1-0 win.
2006-09-26 12:15:03
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answer #2
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answered by ? 3
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relies upon on no count if the pitcher is for the residing house team or the travelers. the residing house team pitcher will in all probability no longer pitch the 9th inning considering that residing house gets final at bat, and the final at bat does no longer be necessary. this might bypass away him pitching to 24 batters. A traveling pitcher might could pitch the backside of the 9th inning, retiring 27 batters. the two situations may well be scored as 9 innings.
2016-10-18 00:52:53
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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No--ask Ernie Shore.
Babe Ruth started a game and walked the first batter then got thrown out. Shore relieved and the runner was caught stealing and the next 26 were out. It's a combined no-hitter.
2006-09-26 14:02:36
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answer #4
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answered by pgh9fan 2
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No. Perfect game means a complete game from the first to the last batter.
2006-09-26 10:58:08
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answer #5
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answered by elgil 7
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No, because it would be considered a combined effort, which would negate the effort. That would be a site to see though. The starting pitcher would be put down as 0+ innings pitched.
2006-09-26 10:58:23
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answer #6
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answered by Ice 4
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Yes it is, it actually happened, read this example:
http://www.baseballlibrary.com/baseballlibrary/features/flashbacks/06_23_1917.stm
2006-09-26 13:18:16
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answer #7
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answered by Mike R 4
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nope
2006-09-26 11:25:46
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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no way
2006-09-26 11:04:02
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answer #9
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answered by EJ 2
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no
2006-09-26 13:30:29
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answer #10
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answered by Andrew B 4
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