Wouldn't it make more sense to move the Houston Astros to the NL West and the Colorado Rockies to the AL West? (As oppose to moving the Astros straight to the AL West, since the Rangers are already there.)
Is there an official reasoning behind this?
2006-09-26 07:37:52 · 6 answers · asked by Adam C 4 in Sports ➔ Baseball
I guess I should have been more specific. Why don't the leagues have the same number of teams? It'd be one thing if there were an odd number of teams, but there aren't. One division has 4 teams (AL West), one has 6 (NL Central)
2006-09-26 12:03:55 · update #1
At the moment, there are 30 active teams in both leagues. For now, the set up is 14 in the AL and 16 NL, which means an even number in each league--otherwise, if they made it 15-15, every day, one team in each league would not be able to play (unless interleague play would be scheduled throughout the entire season). There has been talk of and on to either remove 2 teams from MLB or to add 2, then there would be an equal number for each league.
2006-09-26 20:10:50 · answer #1 · answered by Jeffrey M 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There were two reasons to move the Brewers to the National League. The first was scheduling was a nightmare with an uneven number of teams in a league; someone had to have the day off. Since the inter-league play is only during two time periods within the season that uneven number is impractical.
The Brewers were chosen because of Milwaukee's history as a National League city (Milwaukee Braves). The fact that the Brewers were owned by Bud Selig also made it easier to move them as he did not need to convince someone else to change leagues. Not really a Bud Selig fan, but I think moving his own team was a good sign of leadership.
2006-09-26 13:32:32 · answer #2 · answered by jpbofohio 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No - for a sturdy component of the D.H. rule's historic previous (1977-1992) the A.L. actually had extra communities than the N.L. contained in the Sixties, the nationwide League changed into extensively considered because the more beneficial league - that they had extra stars and extra ideal hitters than the A.L. In an attempt to garner exhilaration through more beneficial scoring video games and capture up in acceptance with the different league, the A.L. followed the rule of thumb contained in the early Nineteen Seventies.
2016-11-24 20:34:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Scheduling reasons. If a league had an "odd" number of teams at least one team would have to sit out for 3 days at a time.
2006-09-26 08:04:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since interleague play does not extend throughout the entire season, it's necessary to have an even number of teams in each league. Were interleague play to go on throughout the entire season, then it wouldn't be a problem having 15 teams in each league.
2006-09-26 08:23:31 · answer #5 · answered by TheOnlyBeldin 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
well there used to be an even amount, but not to long ago they moved the brewers from the AL to the NL. not sure why though. probably has something to do with bud selig being part owner of the brewers.
2006-09-26 07:54:20 · answer #6 · answered by amc3480 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋