English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Can you give a reason that justifies the following equation:

(a/b)/(c/d) = a/b * d/c

* is times

The equation you see is supposed to be a fraction, but I can only put it on one line with the keyboard.

Can you give a reason to justifies this equation? Do it step by step. Write out reasons for each step.
Thank you!

2006-09-26 03:06:32 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

13 answers

First, don't worry about the a/b. It is a constant in the equation. Think in terms of

1/(c/d) = 1*(d/c)
Divide both sides by d then multiply by c. You get 1=1. QED.

2006-09-26 03:13:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

nicely, once you employ the quadratic formulation, the determinant, (the kind lower than the sq. root image) determines no matter if the equation may have genuine or complicated recommendations. if the determinant is lower than 0, then it ought to have complicated (imaginary) recommendations. if the determinant is an identical as 0, then it ought to have a million genuine answer if the determinant is larger than 0, then it ought to have 2 genuine recommendations. the determinant is b^2 - 4ac so, for the first one: sixty 4-4*5*7 sixty 4-100 and forty = -seventy six, so, this it really is worry-free to have complicated recommendations. yet only be careful with negatives, like in #3 a million-4*2*-a million a million- (-8) = a million+8 = 9, so this it really is worry-free to have genuine recommendations

2016-11-24 20:08:35 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

If you divide 1 by 3, you get 1/3. Now if you multiply 1 by 1/3, you get 1/3. So division is essentially multiplication with the reciprocal.
So division by c/d is same as multiplying by d/c.
So (a/b)/(c/d) = (a/b) * (d/c)

2006-09-26 03:17:58 · answer #3 · answered by astrokid 4 · 0 0

(a/b)/(c/d) is division. All division is simply multiplying by the inverse i.e. a/b = a * (1/b)

so you have ( (a) * (1/b) ) / ( (c) * (1/d))
The division means you need to take the inverse of everything on that right side. So you have ( (a) * (1/b)) * ( (1/c) * d)
Which solves back into (a/b) * (d/c) or more accurately (ad)/(bc)

2006-09-26 03:17:08 · answer #4 · answered by Homer H 2 · 0 0

I suspect that you are looking for the behaviour of real numbers under multiplication. This is both commutative and associative - see for example
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Commutative.html

When you combine this with the other answers you have got you can see why you can rearrange the formulae in those ways.

Best of Luck - Mike

2006-09-26 03:49:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I don't see any reason why this should be true. If b, c or d equal 0, the statement doesn't make sense.

2006-09-26 03:56:03 · answer #6 · answered by jarynth 2 · 0 0

(a/b)/(c/d)
what does this mean? It means we have to divide the numerator a/b with a number which is obtained after dividing c by d
It is the samething as divide the numerator by c and the result is multiplied by d. Hence we have the rule
(a/b)/(c/d)=(a*d)/(b*c) or=(a/b)*(d/c)

2006-09-26 04:02:51 · answer #7 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0 0

(a/b)/(c/d) = a/b x c/d

{(a/b)/(c/d)} {a/b x c/d} = 0

{(a/b)/(c/d)} {a/b x c/d} / {(a/b)/(c/d)} = 0 / (a/b)/(c/d)

(a/b)/(c/d) = a/b x c/d

accdng to my hypothesis..there's an equal sign to same equation: one pair must have an equal to 1 value?

2006-09-26 03:30:29 · answer #8 · answered by enlightened_osiris 2 · 0 0

It's a biscut receipe, right?

2006-09-26 03:12:50 · answer #9 · answered by clear_skyzz 2 · 0 0

(a/b)/(c/d) = a/b * d/c
LHS= (a/b)/(c/d)
= (a/b)Divide(c/d)
=(a/b) x(d/c) +RHS
{when (divide sign) is changed to (multiply sign) you have to flip over the terms}

2006-09-26 03:15:07 · answer #10 · answered by Amar Soni 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers