The moon and sun cause the tides, but how about the black holes or the mass that our solar system is attracted is this detectable?
2006-09-26 02:01:07 · 6 answers · asked by treb67 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
The gravitational force is the weakest in the universe. The strength of attraction between two objects falls off (decreases) as 1 / (distance) squared.... that is a very fast drop off, and the distances are vast... the result is no measurable effect.
But if this still bothers/interests you, try reading about Mach's principle (a rational but discounted theory of how everything effects everything). It would feel right to you.
Aloha
2006-09-26 02:10:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 3⤋
The gravitational force between two bodies varies as the inverse square of the distance. So if you move them twice as far apart, the gravitational force is 1/4 as much.
Tides, however, are caused by the difference in gravitational force between, say, the top of the ocean and the center of the Earth. The "tidal force" is the difference in gravitational force between two nearby places. It varies as the inverse cube of the distance. So if you move two bodies twice as far apart, the "tidal force" is 1/8 as much.
This means that "tidal forces" decline much more rapidly with distance. Distant objects that pull on the Earth with significant gravitational force have much less corresponding "tidal force" than do nearby objects such as the moon and Sun. Therefore, the tidal effect on the ocean of distant black holes, etc. is very small---too small to measure.
2006-09-26 09:45:26 · answer #2 · answered by cosmo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The formula for measuring gravitational pull between two bodies is based on the mass of both bodies, and the inverse of their distance.
With that in mind, you need to know the mass of the interstellar body and it's distance from earth before you can calculate how much affect the gravitational pull is. Without these two factors, there is no calculation.
2006-09-26 09:10:11 · answer #3 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope.
You can do the math if you want. The gravity which is associated with the mass of other planets or stars is effected by the inverse square law of the gravitational field. These are too far away for their mass to have any measurable effect.
2006-09-26 09:05:55 · answer #4 · answered by Richard 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋
In theory, yes. But in practice it would be an exceedingly fine measurement. I doubt that the technology to make it will ever exist since the 'noise threshold' would be well down in the range of quantum uncertainty.
Doug
2006-09-26 09:11:48 · answer #5 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Forget about an instrument, I don't think, that even, "an approximate mathematical model," exists for such purpose.
2006-09-26 09:07:00 · answer #6 · answered by Sam 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋