2006-09-24 15:00:01 · 8 answers · asked by chuckey j 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
It's a matter of voting power. A fetus has no voting power. The number of people who want the right to kill a woman's fetus is minuscule, so their voting power is minuscule. The number of women who want to have the right to abort is enormous. Given our politicians' desire to maintain power, the result is obvious.
2006-09-25 05:07:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a person so kills a fetus then he or she is doing harm to the woman who is carrying the fetus. So if the woman dies then the person is charged with murdering the woman not the child.
A woman has her right to have an abortion that is why. So get over it. Abortions have always been around and will not go away.
2006-09-24 22:06:18 · answer #2 · answered by Laughing Libra 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's the woman's body, she has 12 weeks to decide if she don't want the baby. After the 12 Weeks if the woman does anything intentionally, I believe she is charged. If not, she should be.
2006-09-24 22:15:13 · answer #3 · answered by creeklops 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A good example of double standards. It's murder either way!!.
2006-09-24 22:08:04 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it is the pregnant woman's choice whether she wants a baby or not
2006-09-24 22:03:48 · answer #5 · answered by Catcanscratch 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
why is the government not charged with murder when they give people the death penalty?
2006-09-24 22:03:35 · answer #6 · answered by advicemom 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I will not let to come back to this earth but to another wonderful one
2006-09-24 22:02:29 · answer #7 · answered by Linda 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because our society and our government are hypocritical.
2006-09-24 22:02:56 · answer #8 · answered by Writer of Truth 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋