Why did fewer cities develop in the south during the 1700’s?
2006-09-24 11:49:47 · 4 answers · asked by Carpe Diem (Seize The Day) 6 in Education & Reference ➔ Higher Education (University +)
The South was all about little individual farms, and they resisted technological change. The North started making factories and become more tightly inhabited, while the South stayed rural.
2006-09-24 11:53:48 · answer #1 · answered by wsxuyhb;iyfoutf 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The major cities were in the north and the coast. The south was used for agrarian purposes, so you'd have large lands owned by single families, whereas in the cities you'd have a lot of people living in a community because they' do work in textile or other things.
2006-09-24 19:20:00 · answer #2 · answered by Alucard 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The South was basically an Agririan culture.
2006-09-24 18:54:18 · answer #3 · answered by Rich B 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It was too hot!
2006-09-24 18:58:19 · answer #4 · answered by musiclady007 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋