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If x goes to 0 from the left, then 1/x goes to -infty. Now what happens to 2^(1/x) as 1/x goes to -infty? It does *not* go to -infty! In fact, it goes to 0.

2006-09-24 04:59:26 · answer #1 · answered by mathematician 7 · 1 0

i have continually been a bugger for doing it on purpose. in many circumstances I have some properly-replaced song that the censors ought to love. even with the reality that I do have a Dancing Queen tale it truly is not any longer on purpose. really of 'digging', which i have prevalent because the first actual time I were given it incorrect and changed into instructed, for some odd reason I continually say 'kicking'. See that female, watch that scene Kicking the Dancing Queen i have in no way realized the verses, so any problems with those will be interior the destiny. ((((hugs))))

2016-11-23 19:04:41 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

x->0 2^(1/x) let it be y
log y = 1/x log 2
as x->0-
log y -> - infinite
so y-> e^-(inf) = 0
what is the solution in the book

2006-09-24 05:03:39 · answer #3 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0 0

It would be 2 raised to a really big number, which wouldn't be negative.

2006-09-24 05:01:50 · answer #4 · answered by felix_doc 2 · 0 0

email me the name of the book

2006-09-24 04:58:05 · answer #5 · answered by Raymond B 4 · 0 0

You tell us

2006-09-24 04:56:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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