---do both parties have to agree or if one wents to make a clean break even through the other still lives there with children
2006-09-23 20:47:24 · 25 answers · asked by sam_ham232 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Your wife and children are in the house? Those kids have been going through a broken family and now you are going to take their house away? Pay for that house, and let your wife and kids live there! And feed them!
This is YOUR family you want to put in the street. Swallow your selfish pride and look in the mirror. Time for settling scores is in about 20 years! So swallow your childish hate for a while and act like a man. ! Shame on you.
2006-09-23 21:38:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would strongly agree with a lost of posts here. If you have to sign an agreement to buy a house in both names and then you would also need to sign something else before either one of you could sell the house, basically to agree to the sale of the house and also for half of the money from the property and so on. I would speak to the estate agents and a solicitor regarding the matter if I was you mate.
2006-09-24 11:56:17 · answer #2 · answered by PantherCub 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the house is in 2 names, both have to agree to sell and both have to sign the papers for the sale. Only one can't sell it.
2006-09-24 07:54:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
both parties have to sign to sell it. It is possible that one party buys out the other or the man can just sign over his half to the wife so that the children have a place to live. An attorney will give you ideas of what to do.
2006-09-23 21:03:59 · answer #4 · answered by clcalifornia 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Both have to agree and sign in order for one party to sell.
2006-09-23 21:07:51 · answer #5 · answered by cheetah7 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No estate agent will be able to act for you in the sale of the property as both parties have to sign money laundering forms. UK law . Sorry If you want to sell and the other person doesnt then you will have to get a court order. and a divorce!!!!!!
2006-09-24 02:55:47 · answer #6 · answered by Fox Hunter 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
They both must agree to sell. Or the one living in the house must settle with the other any equity in the house. The person receiving the settlement must then sign a quit claim deed showing no further interest in the house.
To remove one's name from the mortgage if any, it has to be refinanced.
2006-09-23 21:01:24 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No!!
Doing that anyone is one of the most utmost acts of betrayal and disrespect!
If you share a house, it is best to put it in both names, so one just can't get kicked out onto the street! Plus, it's a form of sharing and bond and loyalty.
You each need a lawyer to negotiate what you can get out of the price, etc.
How old are you??
Someone should definitely know about the consequences of possibilities and legal rights before you get married!!
It's sharing and fixing your loneliness.
2006-09-23 21:26:11 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Both parties have to agree on the sale.
2006-09-23 20:51:38 · answer #9 · answered by kandn 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think Ima Mystery is right. Check the deed and see how the Grantees are named. If the deed says "and", then no, one party cannot sell without the other signing.
2006-09-23 23:06:42 · answer #10 · answered by Blondie 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋