2006-09-23 20:01:29 · 7 answers · asked by ? 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Assuming you mean the publisher/copyright owner, the answer is absolutely not.
An author, by putting words into a fixed medium from which they can be retrieved, automatically is granted a copyright in the work. That right may belong to the publisher, if it's a work for hire.
A non-rights holder may not simply take the work and use it for any purpose, including translation, without permission of the copyright holder.
2006-09-23 20:17:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. A translation is a derivative work, and is generally prohibited without permission.
2006-09-24 03:13:03 · answer #2 · answered by iansand 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can if it's only for your use or if it is a small selection and you give credit to the source. Otherwise, you have to get permission.
2006-09-24 03:10:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
don't know your law, but in Australia the rule is up to 10% crediting the source. As you aren't changing the arguement, you will still be infringing copyright.
2006-09-24 07:09:49 · answer #4 · answered by tzeentchau 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, u may ..
But u'll have to put a credit to the original source ..
2006-09-24 03:05:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, as far as i am concern with my local press. i can't even display their content even if they does a free coverage on my business. i need to pay for it. its always better to ask prior, don't get into court issue. best wishes.
2006-09-24 03:07:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if it's a published article you may do as you wish with it.
2006-09-24 03:08:44 · answer #7 · answered by Roxy 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋