=sqrt(2pi))S{x*sqrt(2/pi)},
where S is the Fresnel integral
2006-09-23 18:32:19
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answer #1
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answered by Helmut 7
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You can't get an indefinite integral for this, but you have some choices, first of all express sin (x^2) as an infinite series (i.e use a Taylor expansion) and integrate term by term.
You can make use of a polar integral like the case of ∫ e^(-x^2) dx
to get the integral from -infinity to infinity or 0 to infinity.
If of course f'(x) = 2x sin (x^2)
let t = x^2
dt/dx = 2x
then it becomes ∫ sin t dt = -cos t +c = -cos (x^2) + c
where c is an arbitrary constant of integration.
2006-09-23 21:57:18
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answer #2
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answered by yasiru89 6
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lol, i hope you know that antiderivatives also means integrals, if that helps any. it's been too long since i took calculus.
actually, i think it would be -4cos(x). the integral/antiderivative of sin(x) is -cos(x). take the chain rule of x^2, which gives you 2x. since there's a coefficient of 2, you would multiply the 2x with the 2 to get the 4x, giving you the answer of -4xcos(x). and again, i'm not sure because of my old memory in calculus.
2006-09-23 18:02:30
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answer #3
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answered by dharken2 2
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Are you sure it wasn't the antiderivative of f(x) = 2x sin (x^2) ?
2006-09-23 18:14:10
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answer #4
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answered by z_o_r_r_o 6
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Mathematics can be impressive, but when I had to do calculus at 8:00am every day of the week, it sapped my will to live!!!
2006-09-23 18:04:37
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answer #5
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answered by Jeremy D 5
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∫2 sinx² =
- (cos x²) / x
2006-09-23 18:54:30
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answer #6
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answered by M. Abuhelwa 5
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-cos(x^2)
2006-09-23 18:03:06
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answer #7
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answered by wild_turkey_willie 5
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