Why do we consider people in the south to have an accent when really its a lack to properly educate the english language?
2006-09-23 15:15:28 · 14 answers · asked by ? 2 in Social Science ➔ Sociology
i'm 4rm the south and have an accent
2006-09-23 17:46:04 · answer #1 · answered by MZ.SMOOTH 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on where you are from? What are we establishing as the official version of English. It won't be any of the American versions because you will be outvoted by the larger number of English speakers outside the USA. As for lack of education in correct English, have you reread your question? And yes I know there is a dangling participle in the first sentence, but if one of the English languages greatest orators could get away with it then why not me. Language is flexible and every expanding or dead.
In the long run, accent has nothing to do with education but with how the people pronounce the words in the area in which you grew up. No one accent is better than any other but some are better accepted for social status purposes.
2006-09-23 15:36:24 · answer #2 · answered by St N 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Look at what you have written. Is that even a proper question? Is it a proper sentence? We can't all speak the Queen's English like we were educated in Oxford. Those that do speak English without an accent. Those that do not speak as if they were educated at Oxford speak English with an accent. So what has ignorance to do with it?
2006-09-23 15:53:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I've never taken someone to task for their use of the language in Yahoo Answers, but in your case, when you are accusing a region of being poorly educated, I find I must. "Properly educate the english language" is not correct. Also, you confused the possessive "its" with the contraction "it's".
I'm a Virginian, I have a bit of an accent, but I have an excellent command of the English language.
2006-09-23 15:28:12 · answer #4 · answered by warriorwoman 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Is your question directed to yourself? People in the South have accents, yes. But it has nothing to do with their education or grasp of the English language. I'm from the South and I can speak English very clearly. Thanks.
2006-09-23 15:24:17 · answer #5 · answered by First Lady 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Number one the english language doesn't need an education, and second of all any inflection is speech is just a regional thing. It comes from years of different cultures living together in a certain area. And anyways, what does it really matter whether one person sounds different, or whole area of a country sounds different we're all just people anyways
2006-09-23 15:28:43 · answer #6 · answered by pagan332000 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
First of all, 'ignorance' means only that someone is not informed of something, not stupid, or backward. I guess you were ignorant of that fact. Isn't it weird that when I temporarily had a front tooth missing after an accident, strangers (I"M in N.Y.) talked down to me as if I were a Hillbilly? By the way , being superior usually means a lack of integrity; too bad. That's all, --- Rat
2006-09-23 17:06:52 · answer #7 · answered by Raptor 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Excuse me? An accent indicates ignorance? I believe you're eluding to much more than just an accent, based on the way the question is worded!
2006-09-23 15:23:07 · answer #8 · answered by cat lady 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Is it that? I just thought it a regional dialect rather than ignorance. Did Jimmy Carter have an education, or did Clinton? they had those accents..
2006-09-23 15:34:16 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is the Yankees that has the accent. not the southerners. We are educated just speak slower so it sound like some thing besides geezzz uzzzz guyzzzz jeeezzz oooo peetttt. we really do have something to say and it makes sense. not like this Yankee crap. Its u yankees that get on my nerves with u r quarter moon pie zzzz jeezzzz guyzzzz. crap you nasal sounding worthless to the English language quit being so nasal. And pick on someone your own size.
2006-09-23 15:22:41 · answer #10 · answered by someones sister 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋