English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

5 answers

Well, the father was head of the family ("paterfamilias") and theoretically, had absolute power over his wife and children. In fact, when a child was born, he or she was brought to the father, and if he took the child in his arms, all was well--he or she had his protection. If not, the poor kid was thrown out of doors or into the sewer.

As for the slavery issue, it wasn't just the wealthy who had one or two--by the first century AD almost any Roman could afford a slave, and the rich had swarms of them. The wars of conquest led to an influx of human merchandise, and their lives were considered pretty cheap. However, there were a fair number of slaves who managed to earn their freedom, and moved up in the social hierarchy to become clients of their former masters. The clients formed pretty much of an entourage for the upper crust.

Remember, though, this absolutism in the family was largely theoretical--we're so used to hearing of the depravity of the Romans that we don't realize that they were people, too, and there were many men who ruled their families with love rather than tyranny.

2006-09-22 14:37:21 · answer #1 · answered by Chrispy 7 · 1 0

Exactly the same. Mama, papa and kids. If they were rich they would have had a slave or two, depending on how rich and how much land they owned. The family was as structured then as it is today. The husband was the head of the household. Adultery was punishable by death for the wife. Kids could inherit the family estate, etc. Pretty much as it is today. Except ofcourse adultry isn't punishable anymore, heck, it's the norm.

2006-09-22 12:34:42 · answer #2 · answered by Tom 7 · 0 0

In a Roman family that was considered to be 'virtuous', the family unit included mother, father, children, and slaves - particular at least one tutor for the children. (The tutor was often responsible for discipline). There could be a cook, a 'valet', maids for the mother... you could go on and on, according to the family's wealth.
At least one of the other answers referred to immoral practices. Yes, promiscuity was common, but was never really approved by society.

2006-09-22 14:30:14 · answer #3 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 0 0

This sounds like a homework question. If it's not then I apologize. For essay homework questions, it is better for everybody involved in the forum if you read the assigned text and start to put together an answer. Post the answer and we can critique it and help you make it better. But just copying other people's answers is nothing more or less than plagiarism and laziness.

2006-09-22 12:33:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Romans shagged anything going...... same and opposite sex. They encouraged promiscouity.

2006-09-22 12:28:06 · answer #5 · answered by PICKLES 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers