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19 answers

I'm having trouble understanding your question--seems more like a non-question to me.

You initial statement: 'if nothing is known as nothing' does not oppose what we've come to accept as the truth, so it would be hard to give any other answer than yes. There are 2 considerations made: the reality--tangibility--of the object (nothing) and the act of naming the object.
In your question you have stated that the object is nothing: check
You have also stated that the object is given the name nothing; I hope you understand nothing the way I understand nothing.
Your final statement (question) is :'will that still be nothing?'--I think you've just answered your own question.

To clear things up a bit, you must understand that when you think as a philosopher you must understand that you are utilizing 3 domains:
1) the tangible world ie. this keyboard
2) the symbolic domain, this would be the language that we use. Understand the nature of language, the sentence itself means nothing, the language is used to denote thoughts and objects that we encounter. It is in this domain that one idea may be communicated from one mind to another.
3) the mental domain: upstairs, the mind, the place where thoughts are born. This is where we realize the outer world.

You used language to pose a question. Understand that when you say nothing 'nothing' is a name; it is fully flexible, we could decide that 'nothing' would be the name of a kind of fruit and use it as such--no big deal. You could decide to refer to nothingness by another name, it would not change the nature of nothingness. it would not change the way you percieved nothingness.



To answer the question from another perspective--no.
Nothingness is understood as absence--so if it can be noticed and thusly named, it cannot be absent. If it were completely absent we would not be able to percieve it.
Actually, it may be thought of that nothingness is only realized due to the comparative presence of another object.
Alternatively, it may be regarded that true nothingness cannot be percieved in this way: to percieve, an instrument of sorts is necessary. so in the presence of that instrument, nothingness no longer is.



I hope that was helpful and not merely long. Don't quote me though, this is all very casual thinking. Good question--my brain's pulp now.

2006-09-22 05:24:54 · answer #1 · answered by Vernita G 2 · 0 0

Your question posits 2 considerations: that there is a situation of nothingness and that this fact is known as such. Therefore the answer must be that the nothingness continues unaltered - known or unknown.

The principle that observation changes that which is observed cannot be applied or the second consideration, that the nothing is known as nothing, would be invalid. If nothing becomes something other than nothing upon observation then nothing cannot be observed. If it is possible to observe nothingness then there is no reason to assume a change based merely on continued observation.

2006-09-22 10:14:09 · answer #2 · answered by jayelthefirst 3 · 0 0

the answer lies in the word known= there for it is known, you want to resolve will it be nothing?, well the case is closed you have nothing but you are known to have it so it is like invisible maybe because there is so much you've given use to work with here that it's unavoidable to not have something. first we got you then we got what you know and that is nothings so where can you hid all this and call it nothing?or you could have asked if nothing is known by another name will that still be nothing?

2006-09-22 10:06:52 · answer #3 · answered by bev 5 · 0 0

No. It's a different nothing because the "nothing" you used to "describe" the nothing just grabbed a part of the real nothing and said in effect, "See, it looks like this part here so I am going to call it NOTHING."

In essence, you were not actually naming the WHOLE nothing, just a piece of it and so your naming it isdecription was incomplete.

2006-09-22 09:09:43 · answer #4 · answered by Mimi Di 4 · 0 0

Nothing comes to nothing in the end

2006-09-22 09:24:59 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

if nothing IS KNOWN as nothing can be interpreted as nothing = nothing, assuming that "knowing something" translates to leads to, or equals to. So will the right side of that equation still be nothing? Does nothing still equal nothing? sure. nothing = nothing

2006-09-22 09:19:29 · answer #6 · answered by holdcauf01 1 · 0 0

Nothing is the absense of anything, therefore nothing can be labeled as nothing. In order to have a label, the thing that is labeled must be something.

2006-09-22 09:50:50 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is impossible to prove (in the scientific sense of the word) nothing. How do you measure something that isn't there...

In nature, the closest thing to nothingness is a vacuum, and that is still a vacuum; it has a name, it is a thing.

2006-09-22 09:44:22 · answer #8 · answered by Ichi 7 · 0 0

ya it is if u view it from positive side. its said something is better than nothing. we knw sumthing - everything = nothing. by this taking everything on left side that gives us sumthing = nothing + everything. and sumthing - nothing= everything. let nothing be 0 therefore we get sumthing = everything. so nothing is nothing but if u want u can make it sumthing and even everything. like i would be getting points but u can make it more by giving 10 points thats the everything u can give to me. but i would be getting something ofcourse so why not this sumthing be converted itno everything if it can't be nothing. agreed?

2006-09-22 09:16:34 · answer #9 · answered by swati M 1 · 0 0

It only becomes nothing when you stop thinking about it...so for moment your nothing is .

2006-09-22 09:06:32 · answer #10 · answered by bugs 1 · 0 0

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