like there were, homos, free slaves and women rights back in 1776?
2006-09-21 15:48:58 · 17 answers · asked by shamrocks_4ever 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
I think you are way too literal.
2006-09-21 16:02:22 · answer #1 · answered by just wants to know 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Check into the background of these men and I think you will be surprised at some things. In 1776 white men wasn't a term used. White men term comes from the black slaves. The men who wrote the document were from European background. Europeans are not considered white. Color is an American problem. Blacks and whites exist in the US and they are no different from each other except the color of their skin. Both groups who identify themselves by color are really seriously mentally ill, driven by hate, dysfunctional . The document was written for a reason and you need to research this reason and educate yourself. If you are black or white you need professional help from a mental health care provider because first you have to deal with the fact that you think you are a color and should be in a crayon box. Get some professional help and get out of the color box you have colored yourself into.
2006-09-21 23:07:51 · answer #2 · answered by lydia 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
the declaration was written for rich, white, land owning men. they were all that mattered when it was written. in the beginning they were also the only people the constitution allowed to vote. it was later changed to all white men (regardless of possession of land), and then later to all men of any color, and finally later changed to include women. there have always been homosexuals, there is no such thing as a free slave (your either a slave, or your not. a free slave would be a bit of an oxymoron, no?) and women's rights have changed over the centuries, for better and for worse.
2006-09-21 23:01:28 · answer #3 · answered by nyxavenger 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Originally yes, but eventually, everyone was included during the '60's and 70's through Amendments. But all is being erased and the nation is going back to white men only because Americans are too fat and lazy to read... and fight. Can't you see the Neocons gloating?
2006-09-21 22:58:13 · answer #4 · answered by Reba K 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That is why each minoity had such a struggle to get protection rights put in the Constitution. Notice the struggle Gays are having trying to get rights when they are the only ones left for society to gang up on.
2006-09-21 23:21:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Originally, yes.
Add-ins are in the law,
women rights in 60-70s
free slaves during civil war and Lincolmn
homos in 2000s.
2006-09-21 23:10:58 · answer #6 · answered by Cool Z 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It was written by the people ruling the country which were mostly white at the time. America was originally a white country
2006-09-21 23:00:00 · answer #7 · answered by CitoyenPatriote 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
it was an urgent thing and they had to make compromises to get started but they knew that later, if they lived, they would have to face the issues of equal rights. this resulted in the civil war.
if they did not compromise, there would be no USA at all so the issue would be moot. we would all be under the control of the british empire.
think of the USA as a work in progress. it is a process that is still underway and needs you to help complete it.
2006-09-21 23:00:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Lol... "All men are created equal" Provided they are white male landowners. That was who could vote and particpate in government.
2006-09-21 23:57:01 · answer #9 · answered by Sammy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I pledge allegiance to the flag of the United States Of America and to the republic for which it stands, one nation under God indivisible for liberty and justice for *ALL*.
2006-09-21 23:00:04 · answer #10 · answered by snowwwplowerrr 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It was written for white male landowners, I believe. Not just any white man.
2006-09-21 22:56:58 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋