i am taking a phsyics class and was wondering about this question.
When Fr is constant, applied force and M.A are related how. I am thinking inversely realalted? Could be directly related or independent of each other. I dont think they are directly related, but could they be independent of each other?
any explaniation to how i can think about this to come to my own understanding will be appreciated!
thanks
2006-09-21 06:17:32 · 4 answers · asked by KLL 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
r u defining fr as friction then
fr is not directly related
2006-09-21 06:28:49 · answer #1 · answered by jh a 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
okay, in F=MA, F does not stand for the applied force. In fact, it stands for the sum of the forces acting on an object. If you're counting friction as a constant, then the sum of the forces would still equal MA, however it would look more like this:
F = F(a) - F(fr) = MA
where F(a) is the force you apply and F(fr) is the force of friction which, being a drag force, would always act in opposition to motion and therefore be subtracted from the applied force. Either way, friction or no, if mass is constant and friction are constant then applied force and acceleration are directly proportional. This is mathematically b/c if nothing else changes then an increase in applied force MUST correspond to a similar increase on the right side. Since Mass is constant the increase must go to acceleration. Since increasing one leads to increase in the other, they are called directly proportional.
2006-09-21 14:05:22 · answer #2 · answered by promethius9594 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hi. If the force does not overcome the friction then there is no acceleration.
2006-09-21 13:46:41 · answer #3 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
see as above
2006-09-25 10:51:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋