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Prove:

Tn=e^(-1)*integral[x(subscript n)*e^x]dx is equal to

Tn=1-n*T(subscript n-1)

note: boundary conditions for integral are from 0 to 1

2006-09-21 04:20:38 · 3 answers · asked by Rori S 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Prove:

Tn=e^(-1)*integral[x(subscript n)*e^x]dx is equal to

Tn=1-n*T(subscript n-1)

note: boundary conditions for integral are from 0 to 1

x has a SUBSCRIPT. That is the dilemma. How do you integrate x(subscript n)??? Any suggestions would help. You do not have to solve...yes homework is to stimulate the mind, but a little bit of help does not take away from that. :)

2006-09-21 11:08:58 · update #1

3 answers

I'm assuming that the n refers to the index in a series. Then you need to write x sub n as the nth term of the series and then integrate. The formula of the series must contain an x, otherwise the xn is just a constant.






Do you mean x^n (x raised to n) or x subscript n? If you mean x sub n then I need to know what x sub n is because the integration is done with respect to x and not x sub n.

2006-09-21 05:32:04 · answer #1 · answered by thierryinho 2 · 0 0

the impressive way of writing which would be: (d(3x))/dx In different words, the spinoff of the function f(x)=3x with respective to x. The spinoff is a function that describes the slope of a tangent line at any x evaluate our unique function! in this occasion, the respond is 3, simply by fact, in case you graph the function f(x)=3x, you will get a linear line with slope 3 in the time of. happy i could desire to help! =D

2016-10-17 09:36:44 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Hmmm, ponder, think.

Nope. Homework is to stimulate your mind, not mine. Didn't do MY kid's homework for them, so you're out of luck.

2006-09-21 04:29:56 · answer #3 · answered by reynwater 7 · 0 0

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