Suppose a woman has sex with a man who doesn't want it, like in the movie "40 days and 40 nights." Is this rape, and should the women be thrown in jail? Also, if the woman has a child, should the man be forced to pay child support?
I think it is rape, because it is certainly possible for a man to be physically aroused when he doesn't want to have sex. I think she should be given the same punishment that a man would if the genders were reversed. And I don't think the man should be responsible for supporting a child that is a result of that.. What do the rest of you think?
2006-09-21 01:28:53 · 29 answers · asked by john 3 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
Yes of course she should be charged.
We women don't have a right to do anything like that. End of answer.
2006-09-21 03:30:41 · answer #1 · answered by quay_grl 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
I think this would be a very tricky situation. It would be very difficult to prove, even more so than your "typical" rape. So as far as going to jail, i'm not sure that would happen, though it hardly happens at all in rape cases anyway, usually it is the victim that is made out to be a villian. I do believe that if you are too drunk or high to make an informed descision, no matter if you are male or female than yes you are being raped or at the least being taken advantage of. Although, in most cases if a man is drugged or very drunk, he won't be able to get an erection anyway. As far as the man wanting it anyway, not every man likes to sleep around or have casual sex, some only like to have sex when they are in love and are faithful to their wives, shocking but true! And why should we blame the person for being in the situation in the first place, we try and do that to women all the time, but it doesn't matter if a woman is buck naked, if she says no or can't say no than its rape. This situation would also be highly hard to prove because you have more to gain by saying that you were forced if the women is pregnant and you don't want to pay child support. But if you truely were raped by someone why would you want them raising your child? If this was the case the man should fight for custody. But no matter what the outcome, it's not the childs fault and that child still needs to be taken care of and any upstanding man would see that need and want to fulfill it, and hopefully not just finacially but emotionally and physically as well. As we've seen in the cases of statutory rape, women are now being convicted of raping men, so I don't think the statement that a women can not rape a man is accurate. But no matter what you can or cannot prove in a court of law, if this actually happens to you, and you know the facts to be true that you were too drugged to consent than you can at least have the personal satisfaction that this was not your fault and you were indeed raped.
2006-09-21 03:56:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Sleeping Drugged Sex
2016-12-17 13:59:50 · answer #3 · answered by rork 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This question is odd to me because I had no idea that a guy could get an erection if he truly did not want to, let alone ejaculate. Not to mention, unless this guy is a millionaire.. there'd be nothing to gain if she wasn't trying to trap him into marriage. In this situation, it would seem that the woman just wanted a child and would be willing to raise the child alone. I'm not speaking of the person's character but it would I don't see why the guy would fear a financial burden unless he chose to.
If it's possible, yes, I think the woman should go to jail and face character assassination- as men often do. If she gets pregnant, no, I don't think the guy should be forced to pay child support. But then, with the mother locked up, who would raise the child, physically or financially? The mother can't pay child support while she's serving time. Should the child be a ward of the state and be the responsibility of the tax payers? What happens when that child reaches the age of awareness and wants to know about his/her roots? I mean, you could take the stance of "thats not my problem, I'm the victim" but the actual victim would be that child, who absolutely had nothing to do with the situation. I think when a pregnancy is the result of a situation like that, the priority becomes the child and what's right for him/her. It would be selfish to see it any other way.
2006-09-21 05:33:27 · answer #4 · answered by Honey 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
By US law if a person is under the influence of drugs they aren't in a position to consent to sex. It is indeed rape, and it happens a lot. You would be suprised if the "real" numbers of rape victims were about the same for each sex (just that men would be afraid of being laughed at and being ridiculed so they stay silent).
Erections are not controllable. He can't control whether he has one or not, just like a woman can not control whether her vagina tents and lubricates during rape.
2006-09-24 14:39:10 · answer #5 · answered by deusdenton 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Big difference between sleeping and drugged. If the man is sleeping, He is able to wake up and tell her no. Also, What is this girl doing in the house unless she is wanted there. It would probably only be considered rape if there was a police report filed at the time of the incident. You know the system is more inclined to believe what the girl has to say. She would have to be pretty tough to be able to rape me, unless I was drugged.
2006-09-21 01:38:04 · answer #6 · answered by Collector 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is considered rape. Sex without the consent of the other party is rape.
He is not responsible for the child, as he was not a willing part or was not fully aware of the act. You will be responsible for the welfare of the child.
Also you may have legal action to abort the child, as he was not a willing member of the act, and does not want this to haunt his future by having the child find it's biological father, and may cause a burden
2006-09-21 01:35:53 · answer #7 · answered by Juggernaut 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I dont remember too much from criminal law, but it was my understanding that a man can never actually be raped by a woman. Im almost sure the term "rape" refers to a man engaging in unwanted or forced sexual relations with another person. Which, unfortunately means a man can be "raped" by another man (like in prison or something).
I think if, like, a woman ties a dude up or something and its totally against his will, it might be rape but its more toward criminal assualt and battery.
Sick, right?
Actually, a woman can be accused of rape if she assists a man in raping a woman, like holding her down or tying her up for him! In New York, things are very tricky....
2006-09-21 01:32:14 · answer #8 · answered by JusticeManEsq 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Whether male, female, alien, whatever if you commit the crime you should be held accountable. Yes i agree with you, women should be punished if they do this. It just wouldn't be fair to treat women with any less harshness, because of gender. As far as the woman having a child as result goes, this would all be so unfair really. Unfortunately we live in such a cruel world. Awful things can and do happen.
2006-09-21 01:37:17 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, I think it would be more difficult to rape a man, but I'm sure it could happen~~~~~and "yes" she should be charged. As for a child~~~ If she got pregnant by a man and it was intentional (on her part) and the man was not a willing partner~~~he should not be legally or emotionally responsible.
2006-09-21 01:41:05 · answer #10 · answered by rhonda y 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
can a sleeping or drugged man get aroused at all by a female? can he have erection if he does not desire sex? and if he has no desire and no erection, what sex can she have with him? and where is the question of rape?
whereas in case of a woman, she can be forced into intercourse and hence can be raped.
or rape allegation is possible if a man is well awake and is forced to have sex with a female by way of seducing him.
but not with a sleeping or drugged man. i donno if i am right.
2006-09-21 01:45:06 · answer #11 · answered by whatsinaname 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋