2006-09-20 15:27:45 · 6 answers · asked by jset1989 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
I would have to say that the reason that it was considered elitist is because the rights of citizenship were conveyed only upon free landowners.
2006-09-20 15:37:48 · answer #1 · answered by anchorworm 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think you, or whom ever is teaching you this, is seriously deluded. It was more a Republican document and in a republic the franchise is not extended to everyone. One criteria of this extension could be landowner status. Avoid simplistic statements. Things need be kept simple, but not to simple.
2006-09-20 22:36:29 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it was produced by a group of self serving rich men who happened to be running the country at that point... just like what is happening today....
2006-09-20 22:36:58 · answer #3 · answered by fairly smart 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I could be described that way because the word "men" in the constituion only applied to white, anglo saxon, prodestant, land owners at the time.
2006-09-20 22:42:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wasn't. It was intended to ensure the freedoms of all Americans.
2006-09-20 22:36:17 · answer #5 · answered by Heidi 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wasn't, and the teacher who phrased this question is part of today's problems.
2006-09-20 22:38:04 · answer #6 · answered by dollhaus 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋