2006-09-20 11:56:05 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
No, because you stated that you have "a" cricle meaning one, it has on ly 1 radius (radii?).
because a circle is a closed loop. it must have an end, and therefor a finite radius. Now, because you could have infinite number of circles each having a different radius there would be an infinite number of radius-es. possible
2006-09-20 12:22:12 · answer #1 · answered by NW_iq_140 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, there's no reason why it couldn't. A circle itself is not a concrete, tangible object, merely a concept which can be used to describe things in the real world. That does not mean that a circle itself is limited to the real world, though.
A circle could have an infinite radius under at least two conditions. First, you could have a circle that is merely infinitely wide. The circle itself could be a cross-section of an infinite sphere. If our universe were infinite in size and spherical, then a circle of infinite radius would be like a giant sheet cutting thru the universe.
The second condition is if you use non-Euclidean geometry (see link below). This basically means that you're using a warped space. In this scenario, you could have a circle around a point of infinite curvature. Such a circle, oddly enough, would have a finite circumference but an infinite radius--the law of C=2*pi*r does not apply in non-Euclidian space. (Also, parallel lines can meet and the 3 angles in a triangle don't necessarily add up to 180 degrees. How's that for strange!) An example of this type of circle might be a circle drawn around a black hole. At the singularity itself, space could be warped infinitely so that the distance from any point on the circle to the singularity is infinite, even though the circle itself is of finite circumference and could be seen in its entirety from a distance.
Sorry if the non-Euclidean stuff is a bit confusing, it's not an easy topic to describe to those unfamiliar with that branch of mathematics.
2006-09-20 19:43:28 · answer #2 · answered by R[̲̅ə̲̅٨̲̅٥̲̅٦̲̅]ution 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What do you need to find? If you are thinking this question without having a specific application my answer will be say YES, but anyways anything circle related has something to do with the radius so if the radius is INFINITE anything will be infinite... becasue radius multiply to anything in any formula.... Paper can support anything but in real life, i dont think there is an application, since INFINITE is a mathematical concept...
I hope it helps,
2006-09-20 19:06:46 · answer #3 · answered by El Recio 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the definition of infinite. The universe could be a circle and we cannot measure the radius...we can only guess.
2006-09-20 19:02:10 · answer #4 · answered by worldneverchanges 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. I do not believe that this is possible. A circle must have a finite space.
2006-09-20 19:11:28 · answer #5 · answered by almostdead 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you have the equation 2pi R = infinity, you have R = infinity.
2006-09-21 04:51:11 · answer #6 · answered by No Saint 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2006-09-27 04:03:11 · answer #7 · answered by karlrogers2001 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2006-09-21 04:41:45 · answer #8 · answered by Tuna-San 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋