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Ok, here's the question....

"Suppose that a bar 1m long expands 0.5cm when heated. By how much will a bar 100m of the same material expand when similarly heated?"

It seems like I would just multiply 0.5cm by 100. But this seems like too simple of a solution. Is this a trick question? If so, how do I do it correctly?

2006-09-20 11:25:58 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Physics

9 answers

if 1m expanded by .5 then you know that the bar expanded half its original size...so you would take the 100 by 1/2 and multiply it..

2006-09-20 11:31:26 · answer #1 · answered by Candy S 3 · 0 4

I think you are right. The long winded explanation is the following:

The way the bar expands with heat is a fixed property of the material it's made of so it's going to expand in the same way whether its one metre or 100 metres long.

You are told that the 1m bar expands 0.5cm that's [0.5cm/100cm]/ x 100 = 0.5%

You can assume that a bar of this material will always expand by 0.5% when heated. So the 100m bar will expand by 0.5% of 100m. Keeping it in cm that's [10000cm/100] x 0.5 = 50cm

If I'm wrong I appologise unreservedly and you can blame the British education system or just me if you prefer.

2006-09-20 11:43:38 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

the most's instinct, and it really is something that comes evidently to some, yet i quite trust should be advanced in anybody. What you opt to do, even as presented with any physics or maths situation is to objective to exercising consultation precisely what you're being requested. earlier ploughing with the help of any equations, progression up the most proper plausible image of what is going on. case in aspect, if requested to calculate the gravitational stress between 2 thousands, you desire first to exercising consultation what a stress is. it really is a push or a pull, nicely, the thousands listed the following are pulling one yet another, and also you opt to entice close how strongly. What impacts the ability? nicely, the bigger the mass the bigger the pull, the bigger each and every mass in reality, the bigger the pull, so that you'll say that the dimensions of the stress relies upon on the dimensions of each and every mass, and the bigger each and every mass the bigger the stress, so it really is wise to assert that F = m1 X m2 X t, the position F is the stress, m1 is the dimensions of mass a million and m2 the dimensions of mass 2, and t is the different elements in touch. the subsequent portion of ask your self is how the ability of the pull relies upon on the distnace between both thousands, and the answer is that the more beneficial aside they're, the weaker the stress. Experiments let us know that the dimensions of the pull reduces because the sq. of the gap between them, so we would opt to write down F=(m1 X m2)/r^2. this will be authentic, except that the contraptions we use (SI) require a scale aspect, it really is G: F=G(m1 X m2)/r^2. G is merely the consistent cost that permits us to apply kg for the thousands, m for the gap and get and get a effect for the stress in Newtons. continually attempt to image what's happening!

2016-10-16 01:33:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think you are correct.

Thank you for actually having given this some thought before posting your question. Those "solve this for me cuz I'm lazy" posts are depressing.

2006-09-20 11:27:18 · answer #4 · answered by andalucia 3 · 0 0

You did great. The question is tricky only to people who are not so scared to do such simple question.

2006-09-20 11:35:20 · answer #5 · answered by Akinwande A 1 · 0 0

Looks good to me and im in physics

2006-09-20 11:27:28 · answer #6 · answered by Devin 2 · 0 0

If the problem is exactly as you stated it, then your answer is correct.

2006-09-20 11:30:32 · answer #7 · answered by actuator 5 · 0 0

i think you're doing it correctly, it is simple

2006-09-20 11:27:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Your teacher will let you know tomorrow

2006-09-20 11:27:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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