2006-09-20 01:19:21 · 5 answers · asked by L P 1 in News & Events ➔ Other - News & Events
I have often wondered this myself.
Consider this:
Person A looks at an apple and see's it as RED.
Person B looks at the same apple, and also see's it as red.
Person B, however, might see the apple looking like what person A would consider green. However, because we learn by association and demonstration, person B considers that to be red.
In other words, we could all be seeing things differently, but because we learned that the name for what color we see is red, that is red. Make any sense?
2006-09-20 01:24:08 · answer #1 · answered by iswd1 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Only difference is the brightness and contrast levels would be slightly different due to the individuality of the information sent from your eye to the brain. For example. You bounce a ball and from the first bounce two people judge how high the ball went - yet both have different answers. Yet truthfully, the ball had no variance in the actual max height.
2006-09-20 08:34:26 · answer #2 · answered by mynoraxis 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have asked this question sooo many times. It is always unknown. Science points to yes but they dont KNOW.. Interesting isn't it :P
2006-09-20 08:21:14 · answer #3 · answered by Airzy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure 20/20 here
2006-09-20 08:21:03 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
omg when my brother came up with that a long time ago i tried to find a way to prove it but i couldn't so.... maybe you see a diff color blue than I? thats like "does space ever end?" agghhh it bothers me!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! but idk it's easier to just not imagine it :p
2006-09-20 08:51:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋