why is 1 not a suitable logarithmic base?

Answer 1

Because whatever index you give one, the answer will always be one.
one to the power 40 equals one.

If you go back to the definition of logarithm:
the logarithm of a number is the index to a given base that the number must be raised to give that number. When that base is one the answer will be one and we wont get the logarithm

Answer 2

1^n=1 for all n


log1(1^2)=log1(1^3)
2=3

Answer 3

http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/55588.html